a nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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1. A client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy has a urine output of 25 mL/hr. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates a potential complication, such as hypovolemia or renal impairment, and should be reported. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder can be common after a cholecystectomy due to referred pain from the diaphragm, whereas absent bowel sounds may be expected temporarily postoperatively. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing is typical in the early postoperative period and may represent old blood or other normal discharge.

2. What are the complications of untreated hyperglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetic ketoacidosis and dehydration. Untreated hyperglycemia can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis, a serious complication characterized by high blood sugar, the presence of ketones in the urine, and acidosis. Dehydration is also a common complication of untreated hyperglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypoglycemia and hypertension are not typical complications of untreated hyperglycemia. Infection and liver failure, as well as pulmonary edema and electrolyte imbalance, are also not direct complications of untreated hyperglycemia.

3. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has myasthenia gravis (MG). Which of the following images should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing ptosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Drooping eyelids.' Ptosis, characterized by drooping of the eyelid, is a classic symptom seen in myasthenia gravis. This occurs due to muscle weakness, particularly in the muscles that control eyelid movement. Choice B, 'Unequal pupils,' is not associated with ptosis and may indicate other neurological issues. Choice C, 'Facial twitching,' is not a typical sign of ptosis but could be related to other conditions like nerve irritation. Choice D, 'Facial droop,' is more commonly seen in conditions affecting the facial nerve, like Bell's palsy, and is not a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis.

4. What intervention is key when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention when managing a client with delirium is to identify any reversible causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, dehydration, or metabolic imbalances. Administering antipsychotic medications (Choice A) may worsen delirium and should be avoided unless necessary for specific indications. Providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice C) is beneficial as it can help reduce agitation and confusion in individuals with delirium. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate symptoms in delirious patients. Therefore, the priority should be on identifying and addressing reversible causes to effectively manage delirium.

5. What are the key signs of respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and use of accessory muscles are key signs of respiratory distress. When a person is experiencing respiratory distress, their respiratory rate typically increases as the body tries to compensate for the inadequate oxygenation. Additionally, the use of accessory muscles indicates that the person is working harder to breathe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the key signs of respiratory distress. A decreased respiratory rate, cyanosis, altered mental status, and bradycardia are not typical signs of respiratory distress.

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