ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?
- A. Decerebrate posturing.
- B. Hypervigilance.
- C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The nurse notes recurrent variable decelerations of the FHR. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Prepare the equipment necessary to initiate an amnioinfusion
- B. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via a non-rebreather face mask
- C. Discontinue the infusion of oxytocin
- D. Place the client in a left lateral position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the infusion of oxytocin. Oxytocin can lead to uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress, contributing to variable decelerations in fetal heart rate. By stopping the oxytocin infusion, the nurse can promptly assess and manage the fetal heart rate. Choice A, preparing for amnioinfusion, is not the priority when faced with recurrent variable decelerations. Choice B, administering oxygen, is important but addressing the oxytocin infusion issue takes precedence. Choice D, placing the client in a left lateral position, is beneficial for optimizing fetal oxygenation but discontinuing oxytocin is the initial step in managing variable decelerations.
3. What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?
- A. Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath
- B. Nausea, vomiting, and high fever
- C. Headache, confusion, and low blood pressure
- D. Increased heart rate and bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.
4. Nutrients interact in the body to regulate metabolic processes, build and repair tissue, and to:
- A. provide energy.
- B. control cellular wastes.
- C. control hormone levels.
- D. regulate absorption.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: provide energy. Nutrients play a crucial role in providing energy for the body's various functions. While they do help in regulating metabolic processes and in building and repairing tissue, the primary function related to energy production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as nutrients are not primarily responsible for controlling cellular wastes, hormone levels, or absorption.
5. What is the primary action of amlodipine when prescribed to a patient with hypertension?
- A. Increase heart rate
- B. Reduce blood pressure
- C. Lower cholesterol levels
- D. Decrease blood sugar levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. This medication does not increase heart rate, lower cholesterol levels, or decrease blood sugar levels.
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