Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

2. What is the priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium?

• A. Administer anti-anxiety medication
• B. Identify any underlying causes of delirium
• C. Reduce environmental stimulation to calm the client
• D. Encourage deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium is to identify any underlying causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare providers can address the issue effectively and tailor the treatment plan accordingly. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice A) may help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of delirium. Similarly, reducing environmental stimulation (Choice C) and encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may provide some relief, but they do not target the primary concern of identifying and addressing the underlying causes of delirium.

3. A nurse on an acute unit has received a change of shift report for 4 clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who is 1 hr postoperative and has hypoactive bowel sounds.
• B. A client who has a fractured left tibia and pallor in the affected extremity.
• C. A client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses.
• D. A client who has an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pallor in an extremity after a fracture could indicate compromised circulation, making it a priority for assessment. Choice A is not the priority as hypoactive bowel sounds in a client 1 hr postoperative, while concerning, do not indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C, a client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses, indicates good perfusion and does not require immediate attention. Choice D, a client with an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin, may require further assessment but is not as urgent as the client with potential compromised circulation in choice B.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?

• A. Pressured speech
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Lack of sleep
• D. Mood swings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lack of sleep.' In a client experiencing acute mania due to bipolar disorder, lack of sleep is the priority finding for the nurse to address. Sleep deprivation can exacerbate symptoms, lead to exhaustion, and increase the risk of further complications. Pressured speech, increased appetite, and mood swings are also common in acute mania, but addressing the lack of sleep takes precedence due to its significant impact on the client's well-being and recovery.

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