ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?
- A. Decerebrate posturing.
- B. Hypervigilance.
- C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking enalapril for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg
- B. Swelling in the legs
- C. Persistent cough
- D. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Enalapril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This adverse reaction is due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and cough. The nurse should report this symptom to the provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices A, B, and D are not directly associated with enalapril use. While a blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg is elevated and should be monitored, it is not a direct side effect of enalapril. Swelling in the legs and a heart rate of 72 beats per minute are also not typically related to enalapril use and should be assessed but are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.
3. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with a fever?
- A. Administer antipyretics and monitor vital signs
- B. Provide cold compresses and ensure adequate hydration
- C. Encourage the patient to rest and increase fluid intake
- D. Restrict fluid intake and provide bed rest
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When managing a patient with a fever, the appropriate approach involves administering antipyretics to reduce the fever and monitoring the patient's vital signs to assess their response to treatment. Administering antipyretics helps to lower the body temperature and manage fever symptoms effectively. Monitoring vital signs is crucial to ensure the patient's condition is improving. Providing cold compresses, as mentioned in choice B, can help in managing fever symptoms, but it does not address the root cause of the fever. Encouraging the patient to rest, as stated in choice C, is beneficial for recovery, but increasing fluid intake is essential to prevent dehydration. Restricting fluid intake and providing bed rest, as in choice D, can lead to dehydration and hinder the body's ability to fight off the infection causing the fever. Therefore, the best course of action for a healthcare provider is to administer antipyretics while closely monitoring the patient's vital signs.
4. What is the nurse's priority when caring for a client with a tracheostomy who is showing signs of respiratory distress?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator
- B. Suction the tracheostomy
- C. Notify the physician immediately
- D. Increase the oxygen flow rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the tracheostomy. When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention is to clear the airway by suctioning the tracheostomy to remove secretions that may be obstructing the air passage. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may be considered if bronchospasm is present, but the immediate focus should be on clearing the airway. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is important but should not delay the immediate intervention of suctioning. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) may provide temporary relief, but addressing the root cause of the distress by suctioning is the priority.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Absent deep-tendon reflexes
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Tingling of the extremities
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to increased neuromuscular excitability, manifesting as tingling of the extremities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other electrolyte imbalances or conditions and are not typically related to hypocalcemia. Constipation is commonly seen in hypokalemia, absent deep-tendon reflexes are associated with hypermagnesemia, and nausea and vomiting are more indicative of hypercalcemia.
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