Nursing Elites

1. To reduce the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), how should the parents position the newborn?

• A. Prone position
• B. Supine position
• C. Side-lying position
• D. Semi-Fowler's position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Supine position. Placing the newborn on their back (supine position) is the safest sleeping position to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position helps prevent airway obstruction, which can occur when infants are placed on their stomach (prone position), side (side-lying position), or in a semi-upright position (semi-Fowler's position). The prone position (choice A) is associated with an increased risk of SIDS, making it an unsafe choice. Side-lying position (choice C) and semi-Fowler's position (choice D) also pose risks of airway compromise and are not recommended for sleep positioning to prevent SIDS. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect in this context.

2. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has a surgical wound. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent contamination during the dressing change?

• A. Use sterile gloves only as necessary
• B. Restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field while pouring the solution into the dressing tray
• C. Keep the dressing tray on a nearby surface
• D. Avoid speaking during the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent contamination during a sterile dressing change is to restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field while pouring the solution into the dressing tray. Any contact with the sterile field by non-sterile items makes the field contaminated and requires restarting the procedure to maintain sterility. Choice A is incorrect because sterile gloves should always be used during a sterile procedure to prevent contamination. Choice C is incorrect as the dressing tray should be placed on a sterile surface, not on the client's bed, to maintain sterility. Choice D is also incorrect as talking during the procedure does not necessarily lead to contamination if proper aseptic technique is maintained.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Erythrocyte count
• B. Neutrophil count
• C. Lymphocyte count
• D. Thrombocyte count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Filgrastim is used to increase neutrophil production in clients undergoing chemotherapy or with bone marrow suppression. A rise in neutrophil count indicates the medication is working effectively to boost immune response. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as filgrastim primarily targets neutrophils, not erythrocytes, lymphocytes, or thrombocytes.

4. A nurse is caring for a client recovering from bowel surgery who has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent suction. Which of the following assessment findings should indicate to the nurse that the NG tube may not be functioning properly?

• A. Drainage fluid is greenish-yellow
• B. Aspirate pH of 3
• C. Abdominal rigidity
• D. Air bubbles noted in the NG tube

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Abdominal rigidity can indicate a serious complication, such as a blockage or infection, requiring immediate intervention to determine if the NG tube is functioning properly. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of a malfunctioning NG tube. Greenish-yellow drainage fluid may be normal, an aspirate pH of 3 is within the expected range for gastric contents, and air bubbles in the NG tube are not abnormal as long as they are moving.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for hyperkalemia due to impaired potassium excretion. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete potassium, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) refers to low blood sugar levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical concern in chronic kidney disease.

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