Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a 70-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease, the nurse notes deep inflamed cracks at the corners of her mouth. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Apply a moisturizing cream to the affected areas.
• B. Encourage the client to consume foods rich in vitamin B.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation.
• D. Ensure that the client gets adequate B vitamins in foods or supplements.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cracks at the corners of the mouth, known as angular cheilitis, can be a sign of vitamin B deficiency, specifically B2 (riboflavin) or B3 (niacin). The nurse should ensure that the client receives adequate B vitamins through foods rich in these nutrients or supplements to address the deficiency, which can help improve the condition of the client's mouth.

2. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L. What intervention can the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?

• A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) orally.
• B. Erythropoietin (Epogen) intravenously.
• C. Kayexalate retention enema.
• D. Azathioprine (Imuran) orally.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure with high serum potassium levels, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe a Kayexalate retention enema. Kayexalate is a medication used to lower elevated potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion through the gastrointestinal tract, thus aiding in the management of hyperkalemia in clients with renal failure.

3. A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice in a 55-year-old woman, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that typically affects middle-aged women, leading to progressive destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts.

4. A patient with glaucoma is prescribed timolol eye drops. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Reduce intraocular pressure
• B. Dilate the pupils
• C. Constrict the pupils
• D. Enhance tear production

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Timolol eye drops are prescribed to reduce intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma. By decreasing the pressure within the eye, timolol helps prevent damage to the optic nerve, which is crucial in managing glaucoma and preserving vision. Dilating or constricting the pupils or enhancing tear production are not the primary actions of timolol eye drops.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled to receive epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory result should the nurse review before administering the medication?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Creatinine clearance
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the hemoglobin level before administering epoetin alfa (Epogen) to assess its effectiveness in stimulating red blood cell production. Hemoglobin level is a crucial indicator to monitor in clients with chronic renal failure receiving this medication. Choice A (Blood urea nitrogen) and Choice B (Creatinine clearance) are commonly monitored in renal failure but are not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Choice D (Serum potassium) is important to monitor due to potential imbalances in renal failure, but it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

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