Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.

2. The client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause disturbances in the heart's electrical conduction system, leading to a slower heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for signs of bradycardia, which could indicate digoxin toxicity. Hypertension (Choice A), hyperglycemia (Choice C), and insomnia (Choice D) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for this question.

3. The client is being taught about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin for chest pain. Which instruction should be provided?

• A. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
• B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve.
• C. Chew the tablet and then swallow.
• D. Place the tablet between the cheek and gum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct method for administering sublingual nitroglycerin is to place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve. This route of administration facilitates rapid absorption of the medication into the bloodstream, enabling quick relief of chest pain associated with angina or heart conditions. Choice A is incorrect because sublingual nitroglycerin should not be swallowed whole. Choice C is wrong as chewing the tablet can lead to the rapid release of the drug, causing adverse effects like headaches or dizziness. Choice D is also incorrect as the tablet should not be placed between the cheek and gum, but under the tongue for proper absorption.

4. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

5. A 24-year-old man seeks medical attention for complaints of claudication in the arch of the foot. The nurse also notes superficial thrombophlebitis of the lower leg. What should the nurse check the client for next?

• A. Smoking history
• B. Recent exposure to allergens
• C. History of recent insect bites
• D. Familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the nurse should check the client's smoking history next. Smoking is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease, leading to the development of thrombophlebitis and claudication. It is important to assess this risk factor as it can significantly impact the client's vascular health and the progression of their current symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client. Recent exposure to allergens or insect bites would typically present with different symptoms, and familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease is not the immediate concern in this case.

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