ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.
2. A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor your heart rate daily.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- D. Take the medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia, making it crucial to monitor the heart rate regularly to detect any changes promptly. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically related to verapamil administration. Choice C, avoiding grapefruit juice, is more relevant to medications metabolized by CYP3A4 enzymes, not verapamil. Choice D, taking the medication with food, is not a specific instruction for verapamil, as it can be taken with or without food.
3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Avoid using a soft toothbrush.
- B. Report any signs of bleeding.
- C. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
- D. Take the medication with food.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any signs of bleeding when taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is essential to monitor for any signs of abnormal bleeding and report them promptly for appropriate management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to avoid using a soft toothbrush is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Increasing the intake of leafy green vegetables is not recommended as they contain vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. Taking warfarin with food can be inconsistent and may not result in optimal absorption.
4. The patient with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed aspirin. What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take the aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset
- B. Discontinue the aspirin if experiencing ringing in the ears
- C. Take the aspirin at bedtime to minimize side effects
- D. Avoid taking aspirin if also taking other NSAIDs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taking aspirin with food is recommended to prevent gastrointestinal irritation and upset, which are common side effects of aspirin. It helps protect the stomach lining and reduce the risk of developing ulcers. This instruction is crucial in promoting medication adherence and minimizing discomfort for the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing aspirin without consulting a healthcare provider, taking it at bedtime, or avoiding it if taking other NSAIDs can have negative consequences on the patient's health and treatment plan.
5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
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