Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.

2. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being educated by a healthcare professional about monitoring for adverse effects. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. 'I should use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth.'
• B. 'I will double my dose if I miss one.'
• C. 'I should increase my intake of leafy green vegetables.'
• D. 'I will contact my doctor if I notice any unusual bleeding or bruising.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I will contact my doctor if I notice any unusual bleeding or bruising.' This statement indicates a good understanding of the teaching regarding warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that increases the risk of bleeding. Contacting the doctor if unusual bleeding or bruising is noticed is essential as it can help prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Using a soft toothbrush is generally recommended for oral hygiene but is not directly related to monitoring for adverse effects of warfarin. Doubling the dose of warfarin if a dose is missed is dangerous and can increase the risk of bleeding. Increasing the intake of leafy green vegetables can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness as they contain vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's anticoagulant effects.

3. The client with chronic stable angina is prescribed a beta blocker. The nurse is reinforcing instructions. What instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a meal.
• B. Report a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute.
• C. Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs.
• D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to report a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute. Beta blockers are known to lower heart rate, and a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute may indicate bradycardia, a condition that requires medical attention. Option A, 'Take the medication with a meal,' is incorrect because beta blockers don't necessarily need to be taken with food. Option C, 'Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs,' is incorrect because abrupt cessation of beta blockers can lead to rebound hypertension and other adverse effects. Option D, 'Avoid drinking grapefruit juice,' is unrelated to beta blockers' mechanism of action or side effects.

4. A healthcare provider is assisting in the care of a client who is having central venous pressure (CVP) measurements taken. The healthcare provider should assist by placing the bed in which position for the reading?

• A. Flat
• B. Semi-Fowler's
• C. Trendelenburg
• D. Reverse Trendelenburg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Central venous pressure (CVP) measurements are most accurate when the client is lying flat, as this allows for a consistent baseline. Placing the bed flat ensures that the hydrostatic pressure within the vena cava is not affected by the client's position, providing a more precise reading. Choice B (Semi-Fowler's) elevates the head of the bed at a 30-45 degree angle, which could affect the accuracy of CVP readings. Choices C (Trendelenburg) and D (Reverse Trendelenburg) involve extreme positions that would not be suitable for obtaining accurate CVP measurements.

5. The client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is scheduled for a stress test. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client before the test?

• A. Continue taking your usual dose of beta-blockers
• B. Refrain from eating or drinking anything for 4 hours before the test
• C. Wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes
• D. Avoid any physical activity for 24 hours before the test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before a stress test, the nurse should instruct the client to wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes. This is essential as the stress test involves physical exercise, and the client should be ready for the activity involved. Continuing beta-blockers should be based on healthcare provider's instructions; adjustments may be needed. Fasting before the test is usually not necessary. Avoiding physical activity for 24 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the accuracy of the test results by not providing a true reflection of the client's exercise capacity.

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