ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. The nurse is making a home visit with a client diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. The client recently started on lorazepam (Ativan) due to increased anxiety. The nurse is cautioning the family about the use of lorazepam (Ativan). The nurse should instruct the family to report which of the following significant side effects to the healthcare provider?
- A. Paradoxical excitement
- B. Headache
- C. Slowing of reflexes
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, paradoxical excitement. Lorazepam can cause an unexpected response of paradoxical excitement, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. This reaction is characterized by increased anxiety, restlessness, and agitation instead of the expected calming effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because headache, slowing of reflexes, and fatigue are more common side effects of lorazepam and may not warrant immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease needs dietary restrictions. What restriction is necessary?
- A. Increase protein intake
- B. Limit potassium-rich foods
- C. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
- D. Increase phosphorus intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium-rich foods for clients with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function, leading to complications. This restriction helps in managing the condition and preventing further health issues. Choice A is incorrect because increasing protein intake can put additional stress on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can burden the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect as increasing phosphorus intake can be harmful for individuals with kidney disease.
3. A nurse is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse include in the report?
- A. Hgb 12.8 g/dl.
- B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L.
- C. RBC 4.4 million/mm3.
- D. Platelets 100,000/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Platelets 100,000/mm3." A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is low and increases the client's risk for bleeding, which is crucial information to communicate during the change-of-shift report. Choices A, B, and C provide values within normal ranges and are not directly related to the client's postoperative status or risk for complications. Therefore, they are not the priority information to include in the report.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer metoclopramide 10 mg IM. Available is metoclopramide 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
- A. 1 mL
- B. 2 mL
- C. 3 mL
- D. 4 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To administer 10 mg of metoclopramide, the nurse should administer 2 mL (10 mg / 5 mg per mL). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 mL. Choice A (1 mL) is incorrect because it would only deliver 5 mg of metoclopramide, which is half the required dose. Choice C (3 mL) and D (4 mL) are incorrect as they would provide more than the required dose of 10 mg.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a client's morning medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to verify the client's identity?
- A. Ask the client's full name
- B. Scan the client's facility identification band
- C. Call the client's name
- D. Verify with a second nurse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to verify a client's identity when administering medications is to scan the client's facility identification band. This method ensures accuracy and helps prevent medication errors. Asking the client's full name (Choice A) may not be reliable as names can be similar, leading to confusion. Calling the client's name (Choice C) may not be effective if there are multiple clients with the same name in the facility. Verifying with a second nurse (Choice D) is an important safety measure for certain tasks but is not specifically for verifying a client's identity.
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