Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is collecting data on a client who was just admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease (CAD). The client reveals having been under a great deal of stress recently. What should the healthcare professional do next?

• A. Ask whether the client wants to seek counseling or therapy.
• B. Explore with the client the sources of stress in their life.
• C. Reassure the client that stress is common in today's world.
• D. Ask the client to make a list of stressors for later evaluation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is important for the healthcare professional to explore the sources of stress with the client to develop an effective stress management plan tailored to the individual's specific stressors. By understanding the sources of stress, healthcare professionals can identify triggers, implement appropriate interventions, and support the client's overall well-being. Option A is not the immediate next step as exploring the sources of stress should come before suggesting counseling or therapy. Option C is dismissive of the client's feelings and does not address the need for personalized stress management. Option D delays the process by asking the client to make a list without actively engaging in a discussion to identify stressors.

2. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their blood pressure regularly when taking lisinopril. Lisinopril is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure is crucial to ensure it stays within a safe range. This monitoring helps in early detection of any potential issues related to low blood pressure, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking lisinopril with food, increasing potassium-rich foods intake, and avoiding grapefruit juice are not specific instructions related to the safe and effective use of lisinopril.

3. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?

• A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.

4. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

5. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. What laboratory result should be monitored by the nurse?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Creatinine
• C. Blood glucose
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, monitoring the platelet count is essential. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in assessing the risk of thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, creatinine, or blood glucose is not directly related to the action or side effects of clopidogrel, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

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