Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is collecting data on a client who was just admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease (CAD). The client reveals having been under a great deal of stress recently. What should the healthcare professional do next?

• A. Ask whether the client wants to seek counseling or therapy.
• B. Explore with the client the sources of stress in their life.
• C. Reassure the client that stress is common in today's world.
• D. Ask the client to make a list of stressors for later evaluation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is important for the healthcare professional to explore the sources of stress with the client to develop an effective stress management plan tailored to the individual's specific stressors. By understanding the sources of stress, healthcare professionals can identify triggers, implement appropriate interventions, and support the client's overall well-being. Option A is not the immediate next step as exploring the sources of stress should come before suggesting counseling or therapy. Option C is dismissive of the client's feelings and does not address the need for personalized stress management. Option D delays the process by asking the client to make a list without actively engaging in a discussion to identify stressors.

2. When teaching a client about the adverse effects of simvastatin, which of the following findings should be included as an adverse effect?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Muscle pain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Facial flushing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain should be included as an adverse effect when teaching a client about simvastatin. It can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a severe side effect associated with statins like simvastatin that involves muscle breakdown. Monitoring for muscle pain is crucial to prevent serious complications and ensure timely intervention. Tinnitus, diarrhea, and facial flushing are not typically associated with simvastatin use and are less common adverse effects compared to muscle pain.

3. A client has been prescribed ciprofloxacin and is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Take the medication with milk.
• B. Avoid exposure to sunlight.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Increase your intake of vitamin K.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid exposure to sunlight. Ciprofloxacin can increase the risk of photosensitivity, making it important to protect the skin from sunlight to prevent skin reactions. This precaution can help prevent skin damage and discomfort in individuals taking ciprofloxacin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking ciprofloxacin with milk is not recommended as it may reduce the absorption of the medication. There is no specific instruction to take ciprofloxacin at bedtime. Increasing vitamin K intake is not directly related to ciprofloxacin therapy.

4. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Tremors
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

5. The client with a history of left-sided heart failure is exhibiting increasing shortness of breath and frothy sputum. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
• C. Place the client in a supine position
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath and frothy sputum are indicative of pulmonary edema, a serious condition that requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen is the priority action to support the client's respiratory function and prevent further deterioration. Oxygen therapy helps increase the oxygen levels in the blood, alleviate respiratory distress, and support vital organ function. Prompt intervention with oxygen can help stabilize the client while further assessments and treatments are initiated. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may worsen the client's condition by increasing respiratory effort. Placing the client in a supine position can further compromise breathing in a client with pulmonary edema. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but not the priority when the client's respiratory status is deteriorating.

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