Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to administer medication to a client, what action should the nurse take first?

• A. Verify the client's identity.
• B. Check the medication expiration date.
• C. Review the client's medical history.
• D. Obtain the client's vital signs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verifying the client's identity is the initial and most critical step in medication administration. It is crucial to confirm that the right medication is being given to the correct patient. Checking the client's identity helps prevent medication errors and ensures patient safety. Checking the medication expiration date (choice B) is important but should come after verifying the client's identity. Reviewing the client's medical history (choice C) is valuable but not the first step in medication administration. Obtaining the client's vital signs (choice D) is essential in some situations but is usually not the first action needed before administering medication.

2. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris returns to the nursing unit after experiencing an angioplasty. The nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding the procedure and home care measures. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?

• A. I am considering cutting my workload.
• B. I need to cut down on cigarette smoking.
• C. I am so relieved that my heart is repaired.
• D. I need to adhere to my dietary restrictions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because adhering to dietary restrictions is crucial in managing heart health post-angioplasty. Choice A focuses on workload, choice B mentions smoking, and choice C reflects relief about heart repair, which are important but do not directly relate to post-angioplasty care instructions.

3. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential for clients taking spironolactone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly impact serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels significantly. While these values may be monitored for other reasons in a client with heart failure, they are not the primary focus of monitoring when spironolactone is prescribed.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse give to the client regarding lifestyle changes?

• A. Avoid prolonged sitting or standing.
• B. Use an electric razor to prevent cuts.
• C. Take your medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Eat a diet low in protein.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using an electric razor is advised to prevent cuts, which is crucial for individuals taking warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding associated with this medication. Lifestyle changes related to warfarin therapy focus on minimizing the risk of bleeding, and using safety measures such as an electric razor is a practical recommendation to reduce the likelihood of injury. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding prolonged sitting or standing is more related to preventing blood clots than to the bleeding risk of warfarin. Taking warfarin with a full glass of water is not a specific lifestyle change associated with its use. Eating a diet low in protein is not a typical recommendation for individuals on warfarin therapy.

5. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

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