ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which assessment finding requires the healthcare provider's immediate action?
- A. Loss of deep tendon reflexes.
- B. Ascending weakness.
- C. New onset of confusion.
- D. Decreased vital capacity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Decreased vital capacity is the most critical assessment finding in a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome as it indicates respiratory compromise. This requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent respiratory failure, a common complication of this syndrome. Monitoring and maintaining respiratory function are vital in these clients to prevent complications such as respiratory distress, hypoxia, and respiratory failure. Loss of deep tendon reflexes and ascending weakness are typical manifestations of Guillain-Barré syndrome but do not require immediate action compared to compromised respiratory function. New onset of confusion may be a concern but is not as immediately life-threatening as decreased vital capacity.
2. A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Fever and chills.
- C. Increased urine output.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction. These symptoms indicate that the body is having a response to the transfused blood, possibly due to incompatibility or an immune reaction. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic signs of a transfusion reaction. It is crucial to recognize symptoms of a transfusion reaction promptly to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management.
3. A client with hypertension is receiving dietary education from a nurse. Which recommendation should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
- B. Limit your sodium intake to less than 2 grams per day.
- C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- D. Consume at least three alcoholic beverages daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with hypertension is to limit sodium intake to less than 2 grams per day. High sodium intake can worsen hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing saturated fats (Choice A) can be detrimental to heart health and exacerbate hypertension. Avoiding foods high in potassium (Choice C) is not recommended as potassium-rich foods can actually be beneficial for managing blood pressure. Consuming three alcoholic beverages daily (Choice D) can also have a negative impact on blood pressure and overall health.
4. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?
- A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
- B. Prevent asthma attacks
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Salmeterol is classified as a long-acting beta2-agonist, which is used to prevent asthma attacks by providing extended bronchodilation. It is not typically used for immediate relief of acute bronchospasm or for suppressing cough. Additionally, salmeterol does not have the primary purpose of thinning respiratory secretions.
5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. INR of 2.5.
- B. PTT of 45 seconds.
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
- D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.
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