Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Red man syndrome.
• B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• C. Mild itching at the IV site.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Red man syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications such as anaphylaxis. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately to ensure prompt treatment and prevent serious adverse effects.

2. A 56-year-old woman presents to discuss the results of her recent upper endoscopy. She was having some mild abdominal pain, so she underwent the procedure, which revealed an ulcer in the antrum of the stomach. Biopsy of the lesion revealed the presence of H. pylori. All of the following statements regarding her condition are correct except

• A. H. pylori has been associated with gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)
• B. Reinfection is rare despite adequate treatment
• C. Triple drug therapy has been shown to be more effective than dual drug therapy
• D. If her H. pylori IgG antibody titer was elevated prior to therapy, it can be used to monitor treatment efficacy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: H. pylori is associated with a majority of peptic ulcer disease cases and has links to gastric MALT and adenocarcinoma. Triple drug therapy is more effective than dual therapy. Reinfection after adequate treatment is rare. While urea breath testing is a better diagnostic tool, quantitative serology can monitor treatment efficacy. A 30% decrease in IgG titer should occur post-therapy, indicating effectiveness.

3. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed calcium acetate. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Treat hyperkalemia
• B. Reduce phosphate levels
• C. Lower blood pressure
• D. Increase hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing calcium acetate to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is to reduce phosphate levels. Calcium acetate binds to dietary phosphate, preventing its absorption and helping to manage hyperphosphatemia commonly seen in CKD patients.

4. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and has pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Initiate continuous ECG monitoring.
• D. Prepare the client for intubation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing severe shortness of breath and pink, frothy sputum, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion, ease breathing, and enhance oxygenation by reducing venous return and decreasing preload on the heart. It is crucial to address the client's respiratory distress promptly before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice A) may be appropriate later to relieve anxiety and reduce the work of breathing, but positioning is the priority. Continuous ECG monitoring (choice C) and preparing for intubation (choice D) are important but secondary to addressing the respiratory distress and optimizing oxygenation.

5. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

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