Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Red man syndrome.
• B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• C. Mild itching at the IV site.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Red man syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications such as anaphylaxis. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately to ensure prompt treatment and prevent serious adverse effects.

2. What assessments should the nurse prioritize for a client with portal hypertension admitted to the medical floor?

• A. Assessment of blood pressure and evaluation for headaches and visual changes
• B. Assessment for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism
• C. Daily weights and measurement of abdominal girth
• D. Monitoring blood glucose every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In portal hypertension, daily weights and measurement of abdominal girth are crucial assessments to monitor fluid retention and ascites. These assessments help in evaluating the effectiveness of treatment and identifying any worsening of the condition, guiding appropriate interventions. Monitoring blood pressure and assessing for symptoms like headaches and visual changes may be important but are not the priority in this case. Assessing for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism is relevant in some situations but not directly related to the primary concerns of portal hypertension.

3. A patient with diabetes insipidus is prescribed desmopressin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase urine output
• B. Reduce blood sugar levels
• C. Decrease urine output
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Desmopressin is prescribed to decrease urine output in patients with diabetes insipidus. It works by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, helping to control fluid balance in the body.

4. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed calcium acetate. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Treat hyperkalemia
• B. Reduce phosphate levels
• C. Lower blood pressure
• D. Increase hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing calcium acetate to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is to reduce phosphate levels. Calcium acetate binds to dietary phosphate, preventing its absorption and helping to manage hyperphosphatemia commonly seen in CKD patients.

5. A 50-year-old man presents with progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus. Imaging reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Pancreatic cancer
• B. Chronic pancreatitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus along with a pancreatic mass, particularly in the head of the pancreas, strongly suggests pancreatic cancer as the most likely diagnosis. These symptoms are classic for obstructive jaundice caused by a mass in the head of the pancreas, making pancreatic cancer the most fitting choice.

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