Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase potassium intake in the diet.
• C. Weigh yourself daily.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 2 liters per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh oneself daily. This instruction is important as daily weights help monitor fluid loss and are crucial for detecting early signs of fluid imbalance when taking a diuretic. Weighing daily allows for timely adjustments in treatment and helps prevent complications associated with fluid imbalance. Choice A is not directly related to the client's need for monitoring fluid balance. Choice B, although important for some diuretics, is not specific to thiazide diuretics. Choice D is not appropriate as limiting fluid intake without proper monitoring can lead to dehydration, especially when taking diuretics.

2. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with heart failure who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin can cause decreased heart rate. Therefore, monitoring the client for signs of bradycardia is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Hyperglycemia is not a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Insomnia is also not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, some patients may experience visual disturbances, confusion, or other neurological symptoms.

3. Why should the client diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease be advised to notify the dentist before dental procedures?

• A. The client requires prophylactic antibiotics before treatment.
• B. The client may experience dysrhythmias with high-speed drills.
• C. The client may have an adverse reaction to lidocaine with epinephrine.
• D. The client may develop heart failure during stressful events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with rheumatic heart disease are at risk for infective endocarditis, a serious infection of the heart lining or valves. They need prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures, including dental work, to prevent this life-threatening complication. While dysrhythmias with high-speed drills, adverse reactions to local anesthesia, and the risk of heart failure during stressful events are all concerns for clients with heart conditions, the primary reason for notifying the dentist before dental procedures in rheumatic heart disease is the need for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infective endocarditis.

4. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - Dry cough. Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. This adverse reaction can be bothersome to the client and may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Weight gain, hypokalemia, and increased appetite are not typically associated with lisinopril and would not be as concerning as a dry cough when assessing for adverse effects.

5. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

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