Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a postpartum client's fundus. Where should the nurse expect to find the fundus 24 hours after delivery?

• A. At the level of the umbilicus
• B. 1 cm above the symphysis pubis
• C. At the level of the xiphoid process
• D. 2 cm below the umbilicus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After delivery, the fundus is expected to be at the level of the umbilicus 24 hours postpartum. This position indicates that the uterus is involuting properly. Assessing the fundal height helps monitor the progress of uterine involution and can identify any potential complications like postpartum hemorrhage.

2. What characteristic indicates that a mass on a newborn's head is a cephalohematoma?

• A. The mass appears on the second day after birth.
• B. The mass grows larger when the newborn cries.
• C. The head appears asymmetrical.
• D. The mass is located on only one side of the head.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cephalohematoma typically appears between the first and second days after birth, making choice A the correct answer. It results from blood vessel rupture between a cranial bone and the periosteal membrane. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the growth of the mass when the newborn cries, asymmetrical head appearance, or the mass being located on only one side of the head are not specific indicators of a cephalohematoma.

3. What comment made by a parent of a 1-month-old would alert the nurse about the presence of a congenital heart defect?

• A. He is always hungry.
• B. He tires out during feedings.
• C. He is fussy for several hours every day.
• D. He sleeps all the time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Observing a 1-month-old tiring out during feedings should alert the nurse to the possibility of a congenital heart defect. This symptom may indicate that the infant is expending excess energy to compensate for a heart issue, leading to fatigue during feeding. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to a congenital heart defect. Being always hungry, fussy, or sleeping a lot are not specific signs of a congenital heart defect in a 1-month-old.

4. What should be the drop rate per minute using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml?

• A. 19 drops/min
• B. 23 drops/min
• C. 36 drops/min
• D. 46.7 drops/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drop rate per minute when using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml, you simply divide 60 (minutes) by the drop factor (20 drops/ml), giving you 3. Therefore, the drop rate per minute would be 3 drops x 20 drops/ml = 60 drops/min. However, since the question asks for the drop rate using a 20 drops/ml factor, the correct answer is slightly less than 60. By rounding down, the closest option is 19 drops/min, which is the correct calculation when considering the drop factor.

5. You are assessing a 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant and is in labor. She tells you that she was pregnant once before but had a miscarriage at 19 weeks. You should document her obstetric history as:

• A. gravida 2, para 1.
• B. gravida 2, para 0.
• C. gravida 1, para 1.
• D. gravida 0, para 2.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In obstetrics, gravida indicates the number of pregnancies, including the current one. Para indicates the number of pregnancies carried to viability (20 weeks or more). Since the patient has been pregnant twice but only carried one pregnancy past 20 weeks, her obstetric history should be documented as gravida 2, para 0. The miscarriage at 19 weeks does not contribute to the para count. Choice A (gravida 2, para 1) would indicate that she has had two pregnancies with one resulting in a live birth, which is incorrect. Choice C (gravida 1, para 1) would indicate that she has had one pregnancy with one live birth, which does not reflect her obstetric history. Choice D (gravida 0, para 2) would indicate that she has never been pregnant past 20 weeks, which is also inaccurate.

Similar Questions