Nursing Elites

1. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

• A. Blood will shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis.
• B. Blood will shunt right to left, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis.
• C. No shunting occurs due to high pressure in the left ventricle.
• D. Increased pressure in the left atrium hinders the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

2. Justine is admitted to the pediatric unit due to the occurrence of diabetic ketoacidosis signaling a new diagnosis of diabetes. The diabetes team explores the cause of the episode and takes steps to prevent a recurrence. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) results from an excessive accumulation of which of the following?

• A. Sodium bicarbonate from renal compensation
• B. Potassium from cell death
• C. Glucose from carbohydrate metabolism
• D. Ketone bodies from fat metabolism

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) results from the excessive accumulation of ketone bodies from fat metabolism. During DKA, there is a lack of insulin leading to the breakdown of fat stores into fatty acids and their subsequent conversion into ketone bodies. These ketone bodies accumulate in the blood, leading to metabolic acidosis and the characteristic symptoms of DKA.

3. Which of the following statements regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is correct?

• A. The chest should be compressed with one hand, and a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2 should be used.
• B. The chest should not be allowed to fully recoil in between compressions.
• C. A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be used if an advanced airway is in place.
• D. Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-third the diameter of the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During 2-rescuer child CPR, it is important to compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-third the diameter of the chest. This technique ensures effective chest compressions are being delivered to help circulate blood and oxygenate the child's body. Choice A is incorrect because both hands should be used for chest compressions in 2-rescuer CPR. Choice B is incorrect as allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions is essential to create negative pressure and facilitate blood flow back to the heart. Choice C is incorrect as the standard compression-to-ventilation ratio for child CPR is 30:2, regardless of whether an advanced airway is in place.

4. A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department by the mother, who states that the child has been complaining of abdominal pain and has been lethargic. Diabetic ketoacidosis is diagnosed. Anticipating the plan of care, the nurse prepares to administer which type of intravenous (IV) infusion?

• A. 5% dextrose infusion
• B. Normal saline infusion
• C. NPH insulin infusion
• D. Potassium infusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the initial intravenous (IV) fluid of choice is normal saline infusion. Normal saline helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA patients. It does not contain glucose to prevent worsening hyperglycemia or ketoacidosis. NPH insulin infusion is not the initial treatment for DKA; it is typically used after fluid resuscitation. Potassium infusion may be required in DKA to address electrolyte imbalances, but normal saline is the priority for fluid resuscitation.

5. The healthcare provider assesses a postpartum client who is 1 day post-delivery. Which finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Lochia rubra with a few small clots
• B. Fundus firm and midline
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
• D. Saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes indicates excessive bleeding, which is abnormal postpartum. This finding could suggest hemorrhage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring and managing postpartum bleeding are crucial to ensure the client's safety and prevent serious consequences.

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