the nurse explains that a ventricular septal defect will allow which of the following the nurse explains that a ventricular septal defect will allow which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Pediatric Medications Test

1. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

2. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Buspirone is not meant to be taken on an as-needed basis. It should be taken consistently every day to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choice B is correct as it accurately reflects that buspirone may take a few weeks to reach its full effect. Choice C is also correct as buspirone indeed has a lower risk of dependency compared to benzodiazepines. Choice D is correct because taking buspirone consistently every day is the appropriate way to use this medication.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to increased neuromuscular excitability, manifesting as tingling of the extremities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other electrolyte imbalances or conditions and are not typically related to hypocalcemia. Constipation is commonly seen in hypokalemia, absent deep-tendon reflexes are associated with hypermagnesemia, and nausea and vomiting are more indicative of hypercalcemia.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage osteoporosis who is experiencing severe pain and a respiratory rate of 14/min. Which medication should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should prioritize administering Hydromorphone (choice B), an opioid analgesic, to manage the severe pain effectively. Opioids are the first-line treatment for severe pain, especially in end-stage conditions like osteoporosis. Promethazine (choice A) is an antihistamine and antiemetic, not a potent analgesic. Ketorolac (choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may not provide sufficient pain relief in severe cases. Amitriptyline (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for neuropathic pain and depression, but it is not the first choice for managing severe pain in this scenario.

5. What is the proper technique for administering an intramuscular (IM) injection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for administering an intramuscular (IM) injection is to locate the injection site and insert the needle at a 90-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication is delivered into the muscle for proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because a 45-degree angle is typically used for subcutaneous injections, not intramuscular. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the site after an injection can cause the medication to disperse unevenly. Choice D is incorrect as a 15-degree angle would not reach the muscle layer effectively for an IM injection.

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