Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Acrocyanosis
• B. Respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute
• C. Grunting with nasal flaring
• D. Heart rate of 140 beats per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Grunting with nasal flaring is a concerning sign of respiratory distress in a newborn that can indicate inadequate oxygenation. This finding requires immediate intervention to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stabilized and to prevent further complications. Prompt assessment and appropriate intervention are crucial in such cases to prevent respiratory compromise and potential deterioration. Acrocyanosis, which is bluish discoloration of the extremities, is a common finding in newborns and usually resolves on its own. A respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 140 beats per minute are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not indicate immediate intervention is needed.

2. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

• A. Tepid sponging
• B. Oral hygiene
• C. Eye care
• D. N/A

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

3. You arrive at the scene shortly after a 3-year-old female experienced a seizure. The child, who is being held by her mother, is conscious and crying. The mother tells you that her daughter has been ill recently and has a temperature of 102.5°F. What is the MOST appropriate treatment for this child?

• A. Oxygen via non-rebreathing mask, place the child in a tub of cold water to lower her body temperature, and transport.
• B. Oxygen via the blow-by technique, transport, and request a paramedic intercept so an anticonvulsant drug can be given.
• C. Oxygen via non-rebreathing mask, avoid any measures to lower the child's body temperature, and transport at once.
• D. Oxygen via the blow-by technique, remove clothing to help reduce her fever, and transport with continuous monitoring.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate treatment for a child who has experienced a seizure and has a fever includes administering oxygen via the blow-by technique, removing clothing to help reduce fever, and transporting the child with continuous monitoring. Choice A is incorrect because placing the child in a tub of cold water can lead to hypothermia and is not recommended for fever reduction. Choice B is incorrect as requesting an anticonvulsant drug without proper evaluation and assessment by a healthcare provider is not appropriate. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding measures to lower the child's body temperature can worsen the situation in case of febrile seizures. Therefore, the best course of action is to provide oxygen via the blow-by technique, remove excess clothing to reduce fever, and transport the child while continuously monitoring her condition.

4. What is the main cause or association of Type 2 diabetes?

• A. Mostly associated with autoantibodies
• B. Mostly associated with childhood cancer
• C. Commonly associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome
• D. Commonly associated with overeating

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes is commonly associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome. These conditions are major contributing factors to the development of Type 2 diabetes due to insulin resistance and other metabolic abnormalities linked to excess body weight and unhealthy lifestyle habits.

5. A child was brought to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, vomiting, and fruity-scented breath. The resident on duty diagnosed the child with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Potassium chloride IV infusion.
• B. Dextrose 5% IV infusion.
• C. Ringer's Lactate.
• D. Normal saline IV infusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), there is a state of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Normal saline is the initial fluid of choice to help restore intravascular volume and improve electrolyte balance. It also helps to correct acidosis. Potassium chloride IV infusion is commonly added to the treatment regimen once kidney function is confirmed to prevent hypokalemia. Dextrose 5% IV infusion is not the first-line treatment for DKA as it can worsen hyperglycemia. Ringer's Lactate is not typically used as the initial fluid for managing DKA as it contains potassium and could worsen hyperkalemia.

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