ATI LPN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Test
1. When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, which of the following questions would be MOST appropriate to ask?
- A. When did you first notice the symptoms?
- B. Do you have a history of high blood pressure?
- C. What medications do you take and why?
- D. Have you previously had a heart attack?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask when assessing a geriatric patient who may have experienced an acute ischemic stroke is when the symptoms were first noticed. This information is crucial for determining the time window for potential treatments like thrombolytic therapy, as prompt intervention is necessary for stroke management. Option B is not as relevant in the acute assessment of stroke, though important for overall health history. Option C is important but may not be as time-sensitive as determining symptom onset. Option D focuses on a different cardiac event, not directly related to the current concern of a possible stroke.
2. Which of the following findings is abnormal?
- A. Rapid, irregular breathing in a newly born infant
- B. Heart rate of 80 beats/min in a 3-month-old infant
- C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min in a 2-year-old child
- D. Systolic BP of 100 mm Hg in a 10-year-old child
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A heart rate of 80 beats per minute in a 3-month-old infant is abnormally low for that age group and could indicate underlying health issues. The normal heart rate for a 3-month-old infant is typically higher, around 100-150 beats per minute. Therefore, this finding stands out as abnormal and warrants further evaluation. Choice A is not necessarily abnormal in a newly born infant as irregular breathing patterns can be common during the neonatal period. Choice C falls within the normal respiratory rate range for a 2-year-old child, which is around 20-30 breaths per minute. Choice D reflects a systolic blood pressure value within the normal range for a 10-year-old child, which is typically around 90-110 mm Hg.
3. Which of the following statements regarding two-rescuer child CPR is correct?
- A. The chest should be compressed with one hand, and a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2 should be delivered.
- B. A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be delivered with pauses in compressions to give ventilations.
- C. The chest should be allowed to fully recoil between compressions to optimize venous return.
- D. Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one third the diameter of the chest.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In two-rescuer child CPR, the correct compression depth is one third the diameter of the chest. This depth can be achieved by compressing the chest with one or two hands. It is crucial to follow the correct compression depth guideline to ensure effective chest compressions and circulation during CPR for a child.
4. You have just delivered a baby girl. Your assessment of the newborn reveals that she has a patent airway, is breathing adequately, and has a heart rate of 130 beats/min. Her face and trunk are pink, but her hands and feet are cyanotic. You have clamped and cut the umbilical cord, but the placenta has not yet delivered. You should:
- A. reassess the newborn every 5 minutes and transport after the placenta delivers.
- B. keep the newborn warm, give oxygen to the mother if needed, and transport.
- C. massage the lower part of the mother's uterus until the placenta delivers.
- D. give the newborn high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask and transport.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate action is to keep the newborn warm, ensure the mother receives oxygen if needed, and prepare for transport. The newborn is showing signs of central cyanosis (hands and feet being cyanotic), which can be due to various reasons, including inadequate oxygenation. Therefore, ensuring warmth and possible oxygen to the mother are important. Additionally, monitoring both the mother and baby during transport is crucial for their well-being.
5. A postpartum client is concerned about hair loss. The nurse explains that this is:
- A. A sign of nutritional deficiency
- B. A temporary condition due to hormonal changes
- C. An indication of a thyroid disorder
- D. A result of poor hair care during pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hair loss postpartum is a common temporary condition caused by hormonal changes that occur after giving birth. This condition is known as postpartum alopecia and is a normal part of the postpartum period. It is important for the nurse to reassure the client that this hair loss is temporary and usually resolves on its own without the need for medical intervention. Choice A is incorrect because postpartum hair loss is primarily due to hormonal changes rather than nutritional deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as thyroid disorder is not typically the cause of postpartum hair loss. Choice D is incorrect as poor hair care during pregnancy does not cause postpartum hair loss.
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