Nursing Elites

1. What assessment finding places a newborn at risk for developing physiologic jaundice?

• A. Cephalohematoma
• B. Mongolian spots
• C. Telangiectatic nevi
• D. Molding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Cephalohematoma. Physiologic jaundice in newborns can occur due to the breakdown of excess red blood cells. A cephalohematoma, a collection of blood caused by ruptured blood vessels between a cranial bone's surface and periosteal membrane, can lead to increased red blood cell breakdown. This increased breakdown can contribute to the development of physiologic jaundice in newborns. Choices B, Mongolian spots, and C, Telangiectatic nevi, are both benign skin conditions and are not directly associated with increased red blood cell breakdown. Choice D, Molding, refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is not related to the development of physiologic jaundice.

2. Nana Esi is an 11-year-old girl diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). She asks her attending nurse why she can't take a pill rather than shots like her grandmother does. Which of the following would be the nurse's best reply?

• A. If your blood glucose levels are controlled, you can switch to using pills.
• B. The pills correct fat and protein metabolism, not carbohydrate metabolism.
• C. Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.
• D. The pills work on the adult pancreas; you can switch when you are 18.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's best reply to Nana Esi is option C: 'Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.' In type 1 diabetes, the body's immune system destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. As a result, individuals with type 1 diabetes do not produce insulin, necessitating insulin injections for survival. Option A is incorrect as type 1 diabetes always requires insulin therapy. Option B is inaccurate as pills do not replace the function of insulin. Option D is also incorrect as there is no age restriction on using insulin therapy for type 1 diabetes.

3. Serwaa, a 26-year-old mother, has brought her daughter to the OPD with signs of lower respiratory tract infection. Which of the following diagnoses is NOT typically associated with lower respiratory tract infections for her daughter?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Asthma
• C. Bronchiolitis
• D. Coryza

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coryza, also known as the common cold, is a viral infection that primarily affects the upper respiratory tract and is not typically associated with lower respiratory tract infections. Pneumonia, asthma, and bronchiolitis are conditions that commonly affect the lower respiratory tract, causing symptoms like cough, difficulty breathing, and chest pain.

4. In counseling the parents of a child with hypopituitarism, Nurse Gyimah is asked about their child's condition. Which of the following phrases, if stated by the nurse, best describes the condition?

• A. Linear growth retardation with skeletal proportions normal for chronologic age
• B. A complete normal growth pattern, but with the onset of precocious puberty
• C. Normal growth for the first five years, followed by progressive linear growth retardation
• D. Growth retardation in which height and weight are equally affected

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypopituitarism is characterized by linear growth retardation with skeletal proportions normal for chronologic age. This means that although the child experiences growth retardation, their skeletal proportions are appropriate for their age, which distinguishes it from other conditions like precocious puberty or equal height and weight affectation. Choice B is incorrect as hypopituitarism does not involve precocious puberty. Choice C is wrong as it describes a different growth pattern not typical of hypopituitarism. Choice D is also incorrect as in hypopituitarism, height and weight are not equally affected, rather the focus is on linear growth retardation with normal skeletal proportions.

5. During your assessment of a woman in labor, you see the baby's arm protruding from the vagina. The mother tells you that she needs to push. You should:

• A. gently push the protruding arm back into the vagina.
• B. encourage the mother to push and give her high-flow oxygen.
• C. insert your gloved fingers into the vagina and try to turn the baby.
• D. cover the arm with a sterile towel and transport immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When encountering a protruding limb during delivery, it is crucial to recognize this as an emergency situation. The correct action is to cover the limb with a sterile towel to prevent injury and transport the mother immediately to a medical facility. Attempting to push the limb back into the vagina or trying to manipulate the baby's position can be harmful and delay necessary medical intervention. Encouraging the mother to push and providing high-flow oxygen is not appropriate in this scenario as immediate transport is essential to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

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