Nursing Elites

1. The mother of an 11-year-old girl confides to the nurse that her child has no interest in school activities, exercise, or even family outings. The most appropriate response by the nurse would be:

• A. I would recommend that she see a counselor at school.
• B. I would not worry; she will grow out of it.
• C. Many girls this age go through a time of malaise and disinterest.
• D. If she still feels the same way when you come back for the next well-child visit, I will recommend a therapist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a child shows a lack of interest in various activities, including school, exercise, and family outings, it is essential to address the underlying reasons. Recommending that the child see a counselor at school is crucial to explore potential issues and provide appropriate support and guidance. This approach can help identify any emotional, social, or behavioral concerns the child may be experiencing and facilitate early intervention and support. Choice B is incorrect because dismissing the mother's concerns and assuming the child will grow out of it without addressing the issue is not appropriate. Choice C is incorrect because while some children may go through phases of disinterest, it is essential to investigate further rather than generalizing. Choice D is incorrect because waiting until the next visit without taking proactive steps to address the current lack of interest may delay necessary support and intervention.

2. An 18-month-old child presents with fever, nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and a respiratory rate of 50 bpm. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?

• A. High risk for altered body temperature - hyperthermia
• B. Ineffective breathing pattern
• C. Ineffective individual coping
• D. Knowledge deficit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this case, the child is showing signs of respiratory distress, such as nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and an increased respiratory rate. These are indicative of an ineffective breathing pattern. The child's compromised respiratory function requires immediate attention and intervention, making 'Ineffective breathing pattern' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. Choices A, C, and D do not address the respiratory distress the child is experiencing and are not the priority in this situation.

3. What is the leading cause of death in geriatric patients?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Arthritis.
• C. Heart disease.
• D. Altered mental status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heart disease is the leading cause of death in geriatric patients. It encompasses a range of conditions affecting the heart and blood vessels, such as coronary artery disease and heart failure, which are more prevalent in older individuals. These conditions can lead to serious complications and ultimately result in higher mortality rates among the elderly population. Hypertension (choice A) is a risk factor for heart disease but not the leading cause of death in geriatric patients. Arthritis (choice B) is a chronic condition affecting the joints, not a primary cause of death in this population. Altered mental status (choice D) is a symptom rather than a leading cause of death in geriatric patients.

4. You are dispatched to a residence where an 8-year-old boy was pulled from a swimming pool. When you arrive, a neighbor is performing rescue breathing on the child. After confirming that the child is not breathing, you should:

• A. begin chest compressions and reassess in 2 minutes.
• B. assess for a carotid pulse for no more than 10 seconds.
• C. tell the neighbor to continue rescue breathing as you apply the AED.
• D. ask the neighbor how long the child was submerged under the water.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of drowning, it is crucial to assess for a carotid pulse for no more than 10 seconds to determine if chest compressions are needed. This quick assessment helps determine the next steps in providing appropriate care to the patient. Performing chest compressions without confirming the need may not be beneficial and could potentially harm the patient if unnecessary.

5. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

• A. Tepid sponging
• B. Oral hygiene
• C. Eye care
• D. N/A

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

Similar Questions