Nursing Elites

1. Following an apparent febrile seizure, a 4-year-old boy is alert and crying. His skin is hot and moist. Appropriate treatment for this child includes:

• A. allowing the parents to transport the child.
• B. offering oxygen and providing transport.
• C. rapidly cooling the child in cold water.
• D. keeping the child warm and providing transport.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a febrile seizure, it is important to offer oxygen and provide transport to a medical facility for further evaluation and management of the underlying cause. Oxygen may be needed in case of hypoxemia resulting from the seizure. Rapidly cooling the child in cold water is not recommended as it may lead to complications such as hypothermia. Keeping the child warm is also not advisable as the priority is to prevent hyperthermia and provide necessary medical intervention by healthcare providers.

2. What is the purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle?

• A. Detect immediate life threats through a quick hands-on assessment.
• B. Identify if the child has a medical condition or a traumatic injury.
• C. Determine if the child's problem is respiratory or circulatory in nature.
• D. Form a general impression of the child without touching them.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The pediatric assessment triangle is used to form a rapid, hands-off general impression of the child's condition without directly touching them. This visual assessment helps in identifying children who require immediate attention and further evaluation.

3. A 7-year-old child has an altered mental status, high fever, and a generalized rash. You perform your assessment and administer supplemental oxygen. En route to the hospital, you should be MOST alert for:

• A. hypotension.
• B. combativeness.
• C. convulsions.
• D. respiratory distress.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 7-year-old child with altered mental status, high fever, and a generalized rash, the most critical concern is the potential for convulsions. These symptoms could indicate a serious underlying condition, such as a febrile seizure or another type of seizure activity. Monitoring for convulsions is crucial during transport to ensure prompt intervention if they occur, as seizures can lead to additional complications and require immediate management.

4. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

5. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

• A. Tepid sponging
• B. Oral hygiene
• C. Eye care
• D. N/A

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

Similar Questions