Nursing Elites

1. What is the leading cause of death in geriatric patients?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Arthritis.
• C. Heart disease.
• D. Altered mental status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heart disease is the leading cause of death in geriatric patients. It encompasses a range of conditions affecting the heart and blood vessels, such as coronary artery disease and heart failure, which are more prevalent in older individuals. These conditions can lead to serious complications and ultimately result in higher mortality rates among the elderly population. Hypertension (choice A) is a risk factor for heart disease but not the leading cause of death in geriatric patients. Arthritis (choice B) is a chronic condition affecting the joints, not a primary cause of death in this population. Altered mental status (choice D) is a symptom rather than a leading cause of death in geriatric patients.

2. In the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses, one of the things to look for is danger signs. Which of the following will you consider a danger sign in a child?

• A. The child vomits everything
• B. A child with diarrhea
• C. A child with headache
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The child vomits everything.' Vomiting everything is considered a danger sign in a child as it can lead to dehydration and other serious complications. Recognizing this sign early can help in timely intervention and management of the child's condition. Choices B and C are incorrect as diarrhea and headache, while concerning, are not specific danger signs highlighted in the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses.

3. Nana Esi is an 11-year-old girl diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). She asks her attending nurse why she can't take a pill rather than shots like her grandmother does. Which of the following would be the nurse's best reply?

• A. If your blood glucose levels are controlled, you can switch to using pills.
• B. The pills correct fat and protein metabolism, not carbohydrate metabolism.
• C. Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.
• D. The pills work on the adult pancreas; you can switch when you are 18.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's best reply to Nana Esi is option C: 'Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.' In type 1 diabetes, the body's immune system destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. As a result, individuals with type 1 diabetes do not produce insulin, necessitating insulin injections for survival. Option A is incorrect as type 1 diabetes always requires insulin therapy. Option B is inaccurate as pills do not replace the function of insulin. Option D is also incorrect as there is no age restriction on using insulin therapy for type 1 diabetes.

4. The student nurse has performed a gestational age assessment of an infant and finds the infant to be at 32 weeks. On which set of characteristics is the nurse basing this assessment?

• A. Lanugo mostly gone, little vernix remaining on the body
• B. Prominent clitoris, enlarging labia minora, patent anus
• C. Full areola, 5 to 10 mm nipple bud, pinkish-brown areola
• D. Skin opaque, cracking at wrists and ankles, no visible vessels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. At 30 to 32 weeks' gestation, the clitoris is prominent, and the labia minora are enlarging. The labia majora are small and widely separated. As gestational age increases, the labia majora increase in size. At 36 to 40 weeks, they almost cover the clitoris. At 40 weeks and beyond, the labia majora cover the labia minora and clitoris. Choices A, C, and D do not align with the characteristic features seen at 32 weeks of gestation, making them incorrect.

5. What should be the drop rate per minute using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml?

• A. 19 drops/min
• B. 23 drops/min
• C. 36 drops/min
• D. 46.7 drops/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drop rate per minute when using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml, you simply divide 60 (minutes) by the drop factor (20 drops/ml), giving you 3. Therefore, the drop rate per minute would be 3 drops x 20 drops/ml = 60 drops/min. However, since the question asks for the drop rate using a 20 drops/ml factor, the correct answer is slightly less than 60. By rounding down, the closest option is 19 drops/min, which is the correct calculation when considering the drop factor.

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