Nursing Elites

1. During the 5-minute Apgar assessment of a newborn, you note a heart rate of 130 beats/min, cyanosis in the hands and feet, and rapid respirations. The baby cries when you flick the soles of its feet and resists leg straightening. These findings correspond to an Apgar score of:

• A. 9
• B. 7
• C. 8
• D. 10

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Apgar score is a rapid assessment tool to evaluate the newborn's transition to life outside the womb. The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate (>100 bpm), respiratory effort (rapid breathing), muscle tone (resisting leg straightening), reflex irritability (crying when feet are flicked), and color (cyanosis to extremities). The described findings match a score of 9, indicating good overall condition and adaptation to extrauterine life.

2. A clinic nurse reviews the record of a child just seen by a doctor and diagnosed with suspected aortic stenosis. The nurse expects to note documentation of which clinical manifestation specifically found in this disorder?

• A. Pallor
• B. Hyperactivity
• C. Exercise intolerance
• D. Gastrointestinal disturbances

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, leading to reduced blood flow from the heart to the body. This narrowing restricts the amount of oxygenated blood that can reach various tissues, including muscles. As a result, individuals with aortic stenosis may experience exercise intolerance, as their muscles may not receive an adequate oxygen supply during physical activity. This can manifest as fatigue, shortness of breath, and overall decreased exercise capacity. Pallor (choice A) is a pale appearance that may be seen in anemia or other conditions affecting blood flow but is not specific to aortic stenosis. Hyperactivity (choice B) and gastrointestinal disturbances (choice D) are not typically associated with aortic stenosis.

3. When assessing a 30-year-old female in labor, what should the EMT do?

• A. Ask the mother when she is expecting to deliver.
• B. Avoid questioning the patient about her medical history.
• C. Determine the stage of her labor by examining her.
• D. Recall that delivery is imminent if she is crowning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the assessment of a 30-year-old female in labor, the EMT should be aware that delivery is imminent if she is crowning. Crowning indicates that the baby's head is visible at the vaginal opening, signaling that the birth is progressing rapidly and the baby will soon be delivered. This is a critical moment that requires preparedness for the birth process and ensuring a safe delivery environment. Choice A is incorrect because asking the mother when she is expecting to deliver is not relevant when the baby's head is visible at the vaginal opening. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining the patient's medical history is essential for providing appropriate care. Choice C is incorrect because determining the stage of labor by examining the patient is important but recognizing crowning indicates that delivery is imminent and requires immediate action.

4. Which of the following statements regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is correct?

• A. The chest should be compressed with one hand, and a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2 should be used.
• B. The chest should not be allowed to fully recoil in between compressions.
• C. A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be used if an advanced airway is in place.
• D. Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-third the diameter of the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During 2-rescuer child CPR, it is important to compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-third the diameter of the chest. This technique ensures effective chest compressions are being delivered to help circulate blood and oxygenate the child's body. Choice A is incorrect because both hands should be used for chest compressions in 2-rescuer CPR. Choice B is incorrect as allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions is essential to create negative pressure and facilitate blood flow back to the heart. Choice C is incorrect as the standard compression-to-ventilation ratio for child CPR is 30:2, regardless of whether an advanced airway is in place.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a postpartum client who is 1 day post-delivery. Which finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Lochia rubra with a few small clots
• B. Fundus firm and midline
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
• D. Saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes indicates excessive bleeding, known as postpartum hemorrhage, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring and managing postpartum bleeding are crucial in the early postpartum period to ensure the client's safety and well-being. The other options are normal postpartum findings: lochia rubra with a few small clots is expected in the early postpartum period, a firm and midline fundus indicates proper uterine contraction, and a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) is within the normal range for the postpartum period.

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