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Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. Which of the following statements is true about ischemic colitis?
- A. Typically requires colonic resection
- B. Affects the watershed areas of the colon, namely, the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum
- C. Is only seen in the elderly
- D. Requires colonoscopic intervention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ischemic colitis most often results from low-flow states associated with hypotension or poor perfusion. As a result, the vascular watershed areas of the colon, including the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum, are at highest risk of ischemic injury. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately identifies the areas commonly affected by ischemic colitis.
2. The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Red man syndrome.
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- C. Mild itching at the IV site.
- D. Nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Red man syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications such as anaphylaxis. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately to ensure prompt treatment and prevent serious adverse effects.
3. A client has been diagnosed with an esophageal diverticulum after undergoing diagnostic imaging. When taking the health history, the nurse should expect the client to describe what sign or symptom?
- A. Burning pain on swallowing
- B. Regurgitation of undigested food
- C. Symptoms mimicking a myocardial infarction
- D. Chronic parotid abscesses
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Regurgitation of undigested food is a typical symptom of esophageal diverticulum. This condition forms a pouch in the esophagus that can trap food, leading to regurgitation of undigested food. The other options are not typically associated with esophageal diverticulum.
4. A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs and may improve over time.
- B. I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes.
- C. You should take your medication with food to reduce side effects.
- D. Increase your daily exercise to help manage this side effect.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client reports experiencing decreased libido while taking SSRIs, it is important for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider to discuss potential medication adjustments. This side effect can significantly impact a client's quality of life, and addressing it promptly by involving the healthcare provider is crucial in providing holistic care. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the issue of decreased libido caused by SSRIs. Simply waiting for improvement over time, altering the administration of medication with food, or increasing exercise are not appropriate strategies for managing this specific side effect.
5. The mother of a 9-month-old who was diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to the first birthday party of a friend's child the following day. What response should the nurse provide this mother?
- A. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask at all times.
- B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions.
- C. Make sure there are no children under the age of 6 months around the infected child.
- D. Do not expose other children. RSV is very contagious even without direct oral contact.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is to advise the mother not to expose other children to the infected child. RSV is highly contagious, and transmission can occur even without direct oral contact. It is crucial to prevent the spread of the virus to protect other children from getting infected.
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