Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is true about ischemic colitis?

• A. Typically requires colonic resection
• B. Affects the watershed areas of the colon, namely, the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum
• C. Is only seen in the elderly
• D. Requires colonoscopic intervention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ischemic colitis most often results from low-flow states associated with hypotension or poor perfusion. As a result, the vascular watershed areas of the colon, including the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum, are at highest risk of ischemic injury. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately identifies the areas commonly affected by ischemic colitis.

2. A patient with anemia is prescribed ferrous sulfate. What advice should the nurse give regarding the administration of this medication?

• A. Take with dairy products to increase absorption.
• B. Take on an empty stomach for best absorption.
• C. Avoid vitamin C while taking this medication.
• D. Take before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for the administration of ferrous sulfate is to take it on an empty stomach for best absorption. This enhances the absorption of iron. If gastrointestinal upset occurs, the medication can be taken with food. Taking ferrous sulfate with dairy products is not recommended as calcium can inhibit iron absorption. Taking it before bedtime is also not recommended. Vitamin C can actually help with the absorption of iron and is often recommended to be taken alongside iron supplements to enhance absorption. Therefore, avoiding vitamin C while taking ferrous sulfate is not correct.

3. After performing a paracentesis on a client with ascites, 3 liters of fluid are removed. Which assessment parameter is most critical for the nurse to monitor following the procedure?

• A. Pedal pulses.
• B. Breath sounds.
• C. Gag reflex.
• D. Vital signs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a paracentesis where a significant amount of fluid is removed, it is crucial to monitor the client's vital signs. This helps in detecting any signs of hypovolemia, such as changes in blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, which could indicate complications post-procedure. Monitoring the vital signs allows for prompt intervention if there are any deviations from the baseline values.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia. Which laboratory result requires the most immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 350 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L.
• C. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L.
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is critically low and can cause cardiac arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hypokalemia is a life-threatening condition that needs prompt correction to prevent serious complications. High serum glucose levels (choice A) are a concern in diabetes but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to severe hypokalemia. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum bicarbonate levels (choice D) are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention.

5. The client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds since the last dialysis session.
• C. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dl.
• D. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high, a condition known as hyperkalemia, which can lead to severe cardiac complications like arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to lower potassium levels to prevent life-threatening outcomes in clients undergoing hemodialysis.

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