Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is true about ischemic colitis?

• A. Typically requires colonic resection
• B. Affects the watershed areas of the colon, namely, the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum
• C. Is only seen in the elderly
• D. Requires colonoscopic intervention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ischemic colitis most often results from low-flow states associated with hypotension or poor perfusion. As a result, the vascular watershed areas of the colon, including the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum, are at highest risk of ischemic injury. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately identifies the areas commonly affected by ischemic colitis.

2. The client has undergone a thyroidectomy, and the nurse is providing care. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Hoarseness and a sore throat.
• B. Difficulty swallowing.
• C. Numbness and tingling around the mouth.
• D. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and tingling around the mouth can indicate hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent parathyroid gland removal. Immediate intervention is required to prevent severe hypocalcemia manifestations like tetany or seizures. Hoarseness and a sore throat are common after a thyroidectomy due to surgical trauma and irritation to the vocal cords, not requiring immediate intervention. Difficulty swallowing can be expected due to postoperative swelling or edema, but it should be monitored closely. A temperature of 100.2°F is a mild fever and may be a normal postoperative response, not necessitating immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

3. In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?

• A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
• B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
• C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100° F.
• D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low Braden score indicates a high risk for pressure ulcers, making regular turning crucial to prevent skin breakdown.

4. What assessments should the nurse prioritize for a client with portal hypertension admitted to the medical floor?

• A. Assessment of blood pressure and evaluation for headaches and visual changes
• B. Assessment for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism
• C. Daily weights and measurement of abdominal girth
• D. Monitoring blood glucose every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In portal hypertension, daily weights and measurement of abdominal girth are crucial assessments to monitor fluid retention and ascites. These assessments help in evaluating the effectiveness of treatment and identifying any worsening of the condition, guiding appropriate interventions. Monitoring blood pressure and assessing for symptoms like headaches and visual changes may be important but are not the priority in this case. Assessing for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism is relevant in some situations but not directly related to the primary concerns of portal hypertension.

5. A patient with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What should the nurse do to prepare the patient for the procedure?

• A. Have the patient void immediately before the procedure.
• B. Position the patient upright or semi-Fowler's in bed.
• C. Administer a full liquid diet.
• D. Encourage the patient to ambulate for 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preparation for a paracentesis in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites includes having the patient void immediately before the procedure. This is important to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the paracentesis. Positioning for a paracentesis is typically upright or semi-Fowler's, not flat in bed. Administering a full liquid diet or encouraging ambulation for 30 minutes are not directly related to preparing a patient for a paracentesis procedure.

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