Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

2. While assessing a client with diabetes mellitus, the nurse observes an absence of hair growth on the client's legs. What additional assessment provides further data to support this finding?

• A. Palpate for the presence of femoral pulses bilaterally.
• B. Assess for the presence of a positive Homan's sign.
• C. Observe the appearance of the skin on the client's legs.
• D. Watch the client's posture and balance during ambulation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The absence of hair growth on the legs in a client with diabetes mellitus can be indicative of poor circulation due to compromised blood flow. Assessing the appearance of the skin on the client's legs is crucial as it can reveal additional signs of impaired circulation, such as changes in color, temperature, and the presence of ulcers or wounds. This information aids in the comprehensive evaluation of the client's vascular status and guides appropriate interventions to prevent potential complications.

3. A 75-year-old patient is admitted for pancreatitis. Which tool would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use during the admission assessment?

• A. Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10)
• B. Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar)
• C. Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G)
• D. Mini-Mental State Examination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate tool for the nurse to use during the admission assessment of a 75-year-old patient admitted for pancreatitis is the Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G). Since alcohol abuse is a common factor associated with pancreatitis, screening for alcohol use is crucial. The SMAST-G is a validated short-form alcoholism screening instrument tailored for older adults. If the patient screens positively on the SMAST-G, then the CIWA-Ar would be useful for further assessment. The Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10) provides information on substance use in general, not specific to alcohol. The Mini-Mental State Examination is used to assess cognitive function, not alcohol abuse.

4. A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
• B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
• C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
• D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with urinary sepsis, administering Piperacillin/tazobactam first is crucial as it is an antibiotic that directly targets the infection. Addressing the infection promptly is essential to prevent its progression and complications. Vancomycin, Pantoprazole, and Enoxaparin are important medications for the patient's overall treatment plan, but in this scenario, the antibiotic should take precedence due to the urgency of managing the sepsis.

5. A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Tell him he can have a day pass if he calms down.
• B. Put the client's behavior on extinction.
• C. Decrease the volume on the television set.
• D. Instruct the client to sit down and be quiet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a direct and assertive approach that can help de-escalate the situation safely. It sets clear boundaries and expectations for the client's behavior, which may help reduce agitation and aggression in this scenario. Offering a day pass if the client calms down (Choice A) might reinforce the aggressive behavior. Putting the client's behavior on extinction (Choice B) involves not reinforcing the behavior, but it may not directly address the immediate safety concern. Decreasing the volume on the television set (Choice C) does not address the client's behavior directly and may not effectively manage the escalating situation.

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