Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

2. A client who is acutely ill has vigilant oral care included in their plan of care. What factor increases this client's risk for dental caries?

• A. Hormonal changes induced by the stress response leading to an acidic oral environment
• B. Systemic infections commonly affecting the teeth
• C. Intravenous hydration lacking fluoride
• D. Inadequate nutrition and reduced saliva production contributing to cavities

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inadequate nutrition and decreased saliva production can lead to a conducive environment for the development of dental caries. Without proper nutrition and sufficient saliva, the protective mechanisms against cavities are compromised, making the individual more susceptible to tooth decay.

3. A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale
• B. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee
• C. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis proximal to the right knee
• D. Optic nerve using an ophthalmoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee to evaluate for neurovascular compromise. This assessment helps determine the perfusion and sensation of the lower extremity, which is crucial in identifying potential vascular or nerve damage that may be causing the client's symptoms.

4. A patient with anemia is prescribed ferrous sulfate. What advice should the nurse give regarding the administration of this medication?

• A. Take with dairy products to increase absorption.
• B. Take on an empty stomach for best absorption.
• C. Avoid vitamin C while taking this medication.
• D. Take before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for the administration of ferrous sulfate is to take it on an empty stomach for best absorption. This enhances the absorption of iron. If gastrointestinal upset occurs, the medication can be taken with food. Taking ferrous sulfate with dairy products is not recommended as calcium can inhibit iron absorption. Taking it before bedtime is also not recommended. Vitamin C can actually help with the absorption of iron and is often recommended to be taken alongside iron supplements to enhance absorption. Therefore, avoiding vitamin C while taking ferrous sulfate is not correct.

5. A client who underwent a total hip replacement is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid crossing your legs at the knees.
• B. Sit only in low chairs for comfort.
• C. Bend at the waist to pick up objects.
• D. Sleep on the affected side to prevent discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to avoid crossing the legs at the knees. This advice helps prevent dislocation of the new hip joint, which is a common concern after a total hip replacement surgery. Crossing the legs can place stress on the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation. It is important for the client to follow this precaution to promote proper healing and reduce complications postoperatively.

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