a 60 year old man presents with fatigue polyuria and polydipsia laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria what is the most likely diagnosis
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ATI LPN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin (Epogen) stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels in clients with chronic renal failure. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy in managing anemia associated with chronic renal failure. While increased urine output, decreased blood pressure, and stable potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in clients with renal failure, they are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy.

3. A client reports recent exposure to hepatitis A. What is a common mode of transmission for this virus?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatitis A is commonly transmitted through the fecal-oral route, often via ingestion of contaminated food or water. This mode of transmission is why proper hygiene, sanitation, and vaccination are essential in preventing the spread of hepatitis A.

4. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing severe pain. Which medication is likely to be prescribed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methotrexate is commonly prescribed for rheumatoid arthritis to reduce inflammation and slow disease progression. It is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that helps control symptoms and prevent joint damage in individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. While acetaminophen and ibuprofen are used for pain relief, they are not typically prescribed to address the underlying inflammation and disease progression associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Prednisone may be used for short-term symptom relief or during disease flares, but it is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis.

5. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). This is a sign of severe acidosis commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and requires immediate intervention. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off carbon dioxide. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration and potential respiratory failure. Fruity breath odor (Choice A) is a classic sign of DKA but does not require immediate intervention. While a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL (Choice B) is high, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most critical finding that requires immediate intervention in this scenario.

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