ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. How should a healthcare provider manage care for a patient with a wound infection?
- A. Administer prescribed antibiotics
- B. Clean the wound with saline
- C. Apply a sterile dressing
- D. Monitor for signs of sepsis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When managing care for a patient with a wound infection, administering prescribed antibiotics is crucial. Antibiotics are necessary to treat the infection and prevent it from worsening. While cleaning the wound with saline and applying a sterile dressing are important components of wound care, the primary treatment for a wound infection is antibiotics. Monitoring for signs of sepsis is also essential, but administering antibiotics promptly is the most critical step in managing a wound infection.
2. What is the role of a nurse in managing a patient with kidney disease?
- A. Monitor blood pressure and provide dietary education
- B. Monitor urine output and provide IV fluids
- C. Administer diuretics and restrict fluid intake
- D. Monitor for cardiac arrhythmias and provide dialysis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nurses play a crucial role in managing patients with kidney disease by monitoring blood pressure and providing essential dietary education. This helps in maintaining kidney function and overall health. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring urine output and providing IV fluids are tasks usually performed by healthcare providers such as physicians or specialized staff. Choice C is incorrect as administering diuretics and restricting fluid intake are typically prescribed by a physician, and nurses may assist in monitoring the effects. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for cardiac arrhythmias and providing dialysis are tasks that are usually overseen by healthcare providers with specialized training in cardiology and nephrology.
3. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Administer potassium supplements and monitor ECG
- B. Provide a high-sodium diet and monitor for hypertension
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness and provide dietary education
- D. Administer diuretics and provide oral fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with hypokalemia is to administer potassium supplements and monitor the ECG. Potassium supplements help correct the low potassium levels in the body, while ECG monitoring is essential to detect any cardiac arrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B is incorrect because a high-sodium diet would worsen hypokalemia by further depleting potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect as it only focuses on monitoring symptoms and providing dietary education, but does not address the immediate need to correct potassium levels. Choice D is also incorrect as administering diuretics would exacerbate hypokalemia by increasing potassium loss.
4. A client with a tracheostomy shows signs of respiratory distress. What action should the nurse take immediately?
- A. Increase the suction setting on the ventilator
- B. Administer a bronchodilator
- C. Suction the tracheostomy
- D. Encourage deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct immediate action for a client with a tracheostomy showing signs of respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. Respiratory distress in this case is often caused by a blockage, which can be quickly relieved by suctioning to clear the airway. Increasing the suction setting on the ventilator (Choice A) may not address the immediate blockage in the tracheostomy. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice B) may help with bronchoconstriction but does not address the potential blockage in the tracheostomy. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may not be effective in relieving the immediate respiratory distress caused by a blocked tracheostomy.
5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
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