ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer insulin and glucose
- B. Restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor ECG
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Drainage of 75 mL in the first hour after surgery.
- B. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.
- D. Client report of pain at the chest tube insertion site.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak, which should be reported to the provider. This finding suggests that the chest tube system is not functioning properly, leading to potential complications such as pneumothorax. Drainage of 75 mL in the first hour after surgery is within the expected range for a chest tube. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation and indicates proper functioning of the system. Client report of pain at the chest tube insertion site is expected after surgery and can be managed with appropriate pain management measures.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in Buck's traction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the weights
- B. Ensure the weights hang freely
- C. Increase the traction force
- D. Loosen the ropes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client in Buck's traction is to ensure the weights hang freely. This is essential to maintain proper alignment and ensure the effectiveness of Buck's traction. Removing the weights (Choice A) would be incorrect and could compromise the treatment. Increasing the traction force (Choice C) can lead to excessive pressure and potential harm to the client. Loosening the ropes (Choice D) would also be inappropriate as it can disrupt the traction's effectiveness and alignment.
4. A client has hyperthermia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Submerge the client's feet in ice water.
- B. Cover the client with a thermal blanket.
- C. Administer oral acetaminophen.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering oral acetaminophen is the appropriate intervention for a client with hyperthermia. Acetaminophen helps to reduce fever by lowering the body's temperature. Submerging the client's feet in ice water can lead to shock and is not recommended. Using a thermal blanket may worsen the condition by trapping heat. Initiating seizure precautions is not directly related to managing hyperthermia.
5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access