Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?

• A. Administer insulin and glucose
• B. Restrict potassium intake
• C. Monitor ECG
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.

2. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to bear down
• B. Apply the external fetal monitor
• C. Provide the client with fluids
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.

3. A client who has a new prosthesis for an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg needs teaching on its use. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Wear the prosthesis for 2 hours at a time
• B. Remove the prosthesis every other day
• C. Apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day
• D. Elevate the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day. This helps the client adjust to and maintain mobility. Choice A is incorrect because wearing the prosthesis for only 2 hours at a time may not be sufficient for proper adjustment. Choice B is incorrect as removing the prosthesis every other day is not a standard practice and may hinder the client's mobility. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis is unnecessary and not a recommended practice.

4. What are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

• A. Poor hygiene and dehydration
• B. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy
• C. Use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest
• D. Family history and obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor hygiene and dehydration are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs). While choices B, C, and D may play a role in certain cases, poor hygiene and dehydration are more universally recognized as key factors contributing to UTIs. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy (choice B) can also increase the risk of UTIs, but they are not as universal as poor hygiene and dehydration. Choices C and D, the use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest, and family history and obesity, respectively, are risk factors for UTIs but are not as commonly associated as poor hygiene and dehydration.

5. A nurse is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse include in the report?

• A. Hgb 12.8 g/dl.
• B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L.
• C. RBC 4.4 million/mm3.
• D. Platelets 100,000/mm3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Platelets 100,000/mm3." A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is low and increases the client's risk for bleeding, which is crucial information to communicate during the change-of-shift report. Choices A, B, and C provide values within normal ranges and are not directly related to the client's postoperative status or risk for complications. Therefore, they are not the priority information to include in the report.

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