Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is collecting data from a school-age child who has sustained a skull fracture. Which of the following is a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Nausea
• B. Confusion about own name
• C. Rapid pulse
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion, especially about one's own name, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure and should be addressed. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, but confusion about personal information is a more specific and critical indication that requires immediate attention. Rapid pulse may be a possible response to increased intracranial pressure, but it is not as specific as confusion about own name in this scenario.

2. During the admission of a client with a latex allergy, which of the following supplies has the potential to contain latex?

• A. Urinary catheters
• B. Indwelling catheters
• C. Sterile gloves
• D. Sterile gowns

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urinary catheters. Urinary catheters often contain latex, which can trigger an allergic reaction in clients with latex allergy. Indwelling catheters (choice B), sterile gloves (choice C), and sterile gowns (choice D) can be latex-free alternatives. However, urinary catheters are more commonly made with latex, making them a higher risk for clients with latex allergies.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Braden scale score of 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

4. A client is postoperative following hip replacement surgery. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in preventing dislocation of the prosthesis?

• A. Cross your legs at the knees
• B. Avoid bending your hip more than 90 degrees
• C. Sit with your legs elevated
• D. Avoid placing a pillow under your knees

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent dislocation of the prosthesis after hip replacement surgery, it is essential to avoid bending the hip more than 90 degrees. This precaution helps maintain the stability of the hip joint and reduces the risk of prosthesis dislocation. Crossing legs at the knees (Choice A) can increase pressure on the hip joint, leading to instability. Sitting with legs elevated (Choice C) and avoiding placing a pillow under the knees (Choice D) do not directly address the risk of prosthesis dislocation.

5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Sedation.
• D. Shuffling gait.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shuffling gait. A shuffling gait can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms, a potentially serious side effect of haloperidol. Extrapyramidal symptoms include movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent or indicative of serious complications compared to a shuffling gait.

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