ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Monitor for leg pain, swelling, and redness
- B. Check for calf tenderness and administer anticoagulants
- C. Check for discoloration and monitor oxygen saturation
- D. Check for numbness and provide thrombolytic therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: The correct way to assess a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to monitor for leg pain, swelling, and redness. These are common clinical manifestations of DVT. Choice B is incorrect because administering anticoagulants should be based on a confirmed diagnosis, not just suspicion. Choice C is incorrect because discoloration and oxygen saturation are not primary indicators of DVT. Choice D is incorrect because numbness is not a typical symptom of DVT, and thrombolytic therapy is not the first-line treatment for suspected DVT.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
- B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
- C. Bruising to the face.
- D. Absent gag reflex.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.
3. Which instruction should be emphasized for a client with diabetes being discharged?
- A. Check blood sugar once daily
- B. Take insulin before meals as prescribed
- C. Monitor glucose levels weekly
- D. Eat carbohydrate-rich meals to maintain glucose levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Take insulin before meals as prescribed' because it is crucial for managing blood glucose levels effectively in clients with diabetes. Insulin helps the body utilize glucose from the food consumed, preventing high blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar once daily (Choice A) may not be sufficient for proper management, as blood sugar levels can fluctuate throughout the day. Monitoring glucose levels weekly (Choice C) is too infrequent and may lead to missed opportunities for timely intervention. Eating carbohydrate-rich meals to maintain glucose levels (Choice D) is not appropriate advice, as it can cause rapid spikes in blood sugar levels, especially without the proper insulin dosage.
4. What are key signs of fluid overload?
- A. Edema
- B. Hypertension
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: All of the above.' Edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath are key signs of fluid overload, particularly common in patients with heart failure. Edema refers to the swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues, hypertension can be a result of fluid volume overload, and shortness of breath can occur due to fluid accumulation in the lungs. Therefore, all these signs collectively indicate fluid overload in a patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as each alone may not necessarily indicate fluid overload, but when seen together, they strongly suggest fluid volume excess in the body.
5. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?
- A. Immobility and poor nutrition
- B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
- C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
- D. Frequent turning and repositioning
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.
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