Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with hyperkalemia?

• A. Monitor ECG and administer insulin
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels and provide fluids
• C. Monitor for muscle weakness and administer calcium gluconate
• D. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide potassium supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: When assessing a patient with hyperkalemia, monitoring the ECG and administering insulin are crucial steps. Hyperkalemia can affect the heart's function, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any cardiac abnormalities associated with high potassium levels. Administering insulin, along with glucose, helps shift potassium from the bloodstream into the cells, temporarily lowering the potassium levels. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring blood glucose levels and providing fluids are not the primary interventions for hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring for muscle weakness and administering calcium gluconate are not the first-line treatments for hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate may be used in specific situations to stabilize cardiac cell membranes in severe cases of hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring electrolyte levels and providing potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia, as the patient already has elevated potassium levels and does not require additional potassium supplementation.

2. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

3. When using restraints for an agitated/aggressive patient, which of the following statements should NOT influence the nurse's actions during this intervention?

• A. The institution's restraints/seclusion policies
• B. The patient's competence
• C. The patient's voluntary/involuntary status
• D. The patient's nursing care plan

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient's voluntary or involuntary status should not impact the nurse's actions when using restraints. The use of restraints should be based on the patient's behavior and the need to ensure their safety and the safety of others. Choices A, B, and D are important factors that should influence the nurse's actions. The institution's restraints/seclusion policies provide guidelines on the appropriate use of restraints, the patient's competence helps determine their understanding and ability to control their behavior, and the patient's nursing care plan guides the overall care provided, including the use of restraints if necessary.

4. How do you assess for dehydration in a pediatric patient?

• A. Check for dry mouth and decreased urine output
• B. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill
• C. Assess for lethargy and irritability
• D. Monitor blood pressure and heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When assessing for dehydration in a pediatric patient, checking for dry mouth and decreased urine output are crucial indicators. Dry mouth indicates reduced fluid intake or dehydration, while decreased urine output suggests decreased renal perfusion secondary to dehydration. Skin turgor and capillary refill are more indicative of perfusion status rather than dehydration specifically. Lethargy and irritability can be present in dehydrated patients but are more general signs of illness. Monitoring blood pressure and heart rate are important in assessing dehydration severity but are not the initial signs used for assessment.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Increase the client's protein intake
• B. Consult with a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status
• C. Administer a protein supplement
• D. Monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte balance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Consulting with a dietitian is the priority as it ensures that the client receives a comprehensive nutritional assessment and an individualized plan to address the low serum albumin level and pressure ulcer. Increasing protein intake (choice A) and administering a protein supplement (choice C) may be part of the dietitian's recommendations but should not be done without proper assessment and guidance. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance (choice D) is important but not the first step in addressing the client's nutritional needs.

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