Nursing Elites

1. General guidelines when assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion include:

• A. placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen.
• B. separating the child from the parent to ensure a reliable examination.
• C. examining the child in the parent's arms.
• D. palpating the painful area of the abdomen first.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion, it is essential to examine the child in the parent's arms. This approach can help maintain the child's comfort, keep them calm, and increase their cooperation during the assessment. Placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen (Choice A) can be distressing and uncomfortable for the child. Separating the child from the parent (Choice B) may cause additional stress and hinder the examination process. Palpating the painful area first (Choice D) can lead to increased discomfort and resistance from the child.

2. The nurse is using the New Ballard Score to assess the gestational age of a newborn delivered 4 hours ago. The infant's gestational age is 33 weeks based on early ultrasound and last menstrual period. The nurse expects the infant to exhibit which of the following?

• A. Full sole creases, nails extending beyond the fingertips, scarf sign showing the elbow beyond the midline
• B. Testes located in the upper scrotum, rugae covering the scrotum, vernix covering the entire body
• C. Ear cartilage folded over, lanugo present over much of the body, slow recoil time
• D. 1 cm breast bud, peeling skin and veins not visible, rapid recoil of legs and arms to extension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Ear cartilage folded over, lanugo present over much of the body, and slow recoil time are all characteristics of a preterm infant. A is incorrect because full sole creases, nails extending beyond the fingertips, and scarf sign showing the elbow beyond the midline are features of a term infant. B is incorrect as testes located in the upper scrotum, rugae covering the scrotum, and vernix covering the entire body are also indicative of a term infant. D is incorrect because a 1 cm breast bud, peeling skin and veins not visible, and rapid recoil of legs and arms to extension are characteristics seen in a more mature infant, not a preterm newborn.

3. The nurse is planning the care of a hospitalized 4-year-old. The most appropriate technique the nurse can use to reduce the stress of hospitalization for this child is to:

• A. Encourage the child to discuss their feelings.
• B. Encourage peer visitation.
• C. Encourage the child to play with safe medical equipment.
• D. Read a story to the child.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the child to play with safe medical equipment is the most appropriate technique to reduce stress for a hospitalized child. This technique helps familiarize the child with medical equipment in a non-threatening way, empowering them to feel more in control of the environment. Options A, B, and D may be helpful but do not directly address the child's exposure and interaction with the hospital environment, making them less effective in reducing stress in this context.

4. When assessing a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, his blood pressure is 70/40 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 140 beats/min and weak. The child's blood pressure:

• A. indicates decompensated shock.
• B. reflects adequate compensation.
• C. suggests increased intracranial pressure.
• D. is appropriate based on his age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 140 beats/min, and weak, indicate decompensated shock. This presentation signifies inadequate perfusion, leading to compensatory mechanisms being overwhelmed, resulting in decompensated shock. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs suggest the body is unable to adequately compensate for the trauma. Choice C is incorrect as the vital signs are more indicative of shock rather than increased intracranial pressure. Choice D is incorrect as such low blood pressure is not appropriate for a child of this age and indicates a critical condition.

5. What is the leading cause of death in geriatric patients?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Arthritis.
• C. Heart disease.
• D. Altered mental status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heart disease is the leading cause of death in geriatric patients. It encompasses a range of conditions affecting the heart and blood vessels, such as coronary artery disease and heart failure, which are more prevalent in older individuals. These conditions can lead to serious complications and ultimately result in higher mortality rates among the elderly population. Hypertension (choice A) is a risk factor for heart disease but not the leading cause of death in geriatric patients. Arthritis (choice B) is a chronic condition affecting the joints, not a primary cause of death in this population. Altered mental status (choice D) is a symptom rather than a leading cause of death in geriatric patients.

Similar Questions