Nursing Elites

1. Nana Esi is an 11-year-old girl diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). She asks her attending nurse why she can't take a pill rather than shots like her grandmother does. Which of the following would be the nurse's best reply?

• A. If your blood glucose levels are controlled, you can switch to using pills.
• B. The pills correct fat and protein metabolism, not carbohydrate metabolism.
• C. Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.
• D. The pills work on the adult pancreas; you can switch when you are 18.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's best reply to Nana Esi is option C: 'Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.' In type 1 diabetes, the body's immune system destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. As a result, individuals with type 1 diabetes do not produce insulin, necessitating insulin injections for survival. Option A is incorrect as type 1 diabetes always requires insulin therapy. Option B is inaccurate as pills do not replace the function of insulin. Option D is also incorrect as there is no age restriction on using insulin therapy for type 1 diabetes.

2. How would you classify a child at two years of age who has fast breathing without chest indrawing or stridor when calm?

• A. Very severe disease
• B. Pneumonia
• C. No pneumonia
• D. Local infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric clinical assessment, a child at two years of age with fast breathing but without chest indrawing or stridor when calm is classified as having pneumonia. Fast breathing in this context is a key symptom used in the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) guidelines to diagnose pneumonia in children under five years old. The absence of chest indrawing or stridor when the child is calm helps differentiate this case from other respiratory conditions, making pneumonia the likely classification. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Very severe disease' is too broad and not specific to the symptoms described. 'No pneumonia' is also incorrect as the symptoms match the presentation of pneumonia. 'Local infection' is too vague and does not specifically address the respiratory symptoms observed.

3. Beta-adrenergic agonists such as Salbutamol are given to Reggie, a child with asthma. Such drugs are administered primarily to do which of the following?

• A. Dilate the bronchioles
• B. Reduce secondary infections
• C. Decrease postnasal drip
• D. Reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta-adrenergic agonists like Salbutamol are used to dilate the bronchioles in asthma patients. This action helps in relieving bronchospasms and improving airflow to the lungs, making breathing easier for the individual. While reducing inflammation is an essential part of asthma management, beta-adrenergic agonists primarily work by relaxing the smooth muscles around the airways, leading to bronchodilation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because beta-adrenergic agonists are not primarily used to reduce secondary infections, decrease postnasal drip, or directly reduce airway inflammation in asthma patients.

4. A postpartum client who delivered a healthy newborn is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding would indicate a complication during the early postpartum period?

• A. Moderate lochia rubra
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Uterine contraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated blood pressure in the postpartum period may indicate the onset of preeclampsia, a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and sometimes swelling in the hands and face. If left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor blood pressure levels in postpartum clients to promptly address any signs of preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of a complication during the early postpartum period. Moderate lochia rubra is a normal finding as it indicates the normal discharge of blood and tissue from the uterus after childbirth. Bradycardia, a slow heart rate, is not typically a concern in the absence of other symptoms or signs of distress. Uterine contractions are essential for involution and are expected in the postpartum period.

5. Which of the following statements regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is correct?

• A. The chest should be compressed with one hand, and a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2 should be used.
• B. The chest should not be allowed to fully recoil in between compressions.
• C. A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be used if an advanced airway is in place.
• D. Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-third the diameter of the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During 2-rescuer child CPR, it is important to compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-third the diameter of the chest. This technique ensures effective chest compressions are being delivered to help circulate blood and oxygenate the child's body. Choice A is incorrect because both hands should be used for chest compressions in 2-rescuer CPR. Choice B is incorrect as allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions is essential to create negative pressure and facilitate blood flow back to the heart. Choice C is incorrect as the standard compression-to-ventilation ratio for child CPR is 30:2, regardless of whether an advanced airway is in place.

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