Nursing Elites

1. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?

• A. Diverticular bleed
• B. Duodenal ulcer
• C. Inflammatory bowel disease
• D. Vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.

2. A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic heartburn presents with progressive difficulty swallowing solids and liquids. He has lost 10 pounds in the past two months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Esophageal stricture
• B. Esophageal cancer
• C. Achalasia
• D. Peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation of progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids, along with significant weight loss, is concerning for esophageal cancer. The history of chronic heartburn further raises suspicion as chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease is a risk factor for the development of esophageal adenocarcinoma. Esophageal stricture could cause dysphagia but is less likely to be associated with significant weight loss. Achalasia typically presents with dysphagia to solids more than liquids and does not commonly cause weight loss. Peptic ulcer disease is less likely to lead to progressive dysphagia and significant weight loss compared to esophageal cancer.

3. A client has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The client's current medication regimen includes lactulose four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention?

• A. Two to three soft bowel movements daily
• B. Significant increase in appetite and food intake
• C. Absence of nausea and vomiting
• D. Absence of blood or mucus in stool

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used in hepatic encephalopathy to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting bowel movements. The desired outcome of lactulose therapy is typically two to three soft bowel movements daily, which helps in eliminating excess ammonia from the body, thus improving the client's condition.

4. When covering another nurse's assignment during a lunch break, based on the status report provided, which client should the charge nurse check first?

• A. The client admitted yesterday with diabetic ketoacidosis whose blood glucose level is now 195 mg/dl.
• B. The client with an ileal conduit created two days ago with a scant amount of blood in the drainage pouch.
• C. The client post-triple coronary bypass four days ago who has serosanguinous drainage in the chest tube.
• D. The client with a pneumothorax secondary to a gunshot wound with a current pulse oximeter reading of 90%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with a pneumothorax and a pulse oximeter reading of 90% indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration.

5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Bowel sounds active in all quadrants.
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Rigid, board-like abdomen.
• D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A rigid, board-like abdomen is a sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease that can lead to sepsis and requires immediate intervention. This finding indicates a potential emergency situation that needs urgent medical attention to prevent further complications.

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