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Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?
- A. Diverticular bleed
- B. Duodenal ulcer
- C. Inflammatory bowel disease
- D. Vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.
2. A 75-year-old patient is admitted for pancreatitis. Which tool would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use during the admission assessment?
- A. Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10)
- B. Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar)
- C. Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G)
- D. Mini-Mental State Examination
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate tool for the nurse to use during the admission assessment of a 75-year-old patient admitted for pancreatitis is the Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G). Since alcohol abuse is a common factor associated with pancreatitis, screening for alcohol use is crucial. The SMAST-G is a validated short-form alcoholism screening instrument tailored for older adults. If the patient screens positively on the SMAST-G, then the CIWA-Ar would be useful for further assessment. The Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10) provides information on substance use in general, not specific to alcohol. The Mini-Mental State Examination is used to assess cognitive function, not alcohol abuse.
3. The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary modifications by the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of spicy foods.
- B. Avoid lying down immediately after eating.
- C. Consume a high-fat diet.
- D. Drink caffeinated beverages with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Avoiding lying down immediately after eating is essential in managing GERD as it helps prevent reflux symptoms by allowing gravity to assist in keeping stomach contents down. Lying down can worsen symptoms by allowing acid to flow back into the esophagus.
4. A 56-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has severe joint pain and swelling in her hands. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease five years ago but presently has no GI symptoms. You elect to start her on an NSAID. Which of the following is correct?
- A. Proton-pump inhibitors and H2-blockers are equally effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
- B. Misoprostol is superior to an H2-blocker in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity.
- C. Sucralfate is not the drug of choice for prophylaxis in this patient.
- D. H. pylori infection can alter the risk for an NSAID-induced ulcer.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of peptic ulcer disease puts her at risk for NSAID-related GI toxicity. Misoprostol and proton-pump inhibitors have shown superiority over H2-blockers in preventing NSAID-related GI toxicity. H. pylori infection can indeed increase the risk of an NSAID-induced ulcer in infected patients who are starting NSAID therapy. Sucralfate has not been proven to be effective in prophylaxis against NSAID-related GI toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is B, as misoprostol is the preferred option over an H2-blocker in this context.
5. A primipara at 38-weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for a biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should prepare the client for what procedures?
- A. Chorionic villus sampling under ultrasound.
- B. Amniocentesis and fetal monitoring.
- C. Ultrasonography and nonstress test.
- D. Oxytocin challenge test and fetal heart rate monitoring.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A biophysical profile (BPP) is a prenatal test that assesses the well-being of the fetus. It typically includes ultrasonography to evaluate fetal movements, muscle tone, breathing movements, and amniotic fluid volume. Additionally, a nonstress test is performed to monitor the fetal heart rate in response to its movements. These tests help in determining the overall health and viability of the fetus, making them essential components of prenatal care for assessing fetal well-being.
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