ATI LPN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?
- A. Diverticular bleed
- B. Duodenal ulcer
- C. Inflammatory bowel disease
- D. Vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?
- A. Heart disease
- B. Cervical dilation of 2 cm
- C. Gestational age of 34 weeks
- D. Allergy to penicillin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, heart disease. Terbutaline is contraindicated in clients with heart disease because it can lead to tachycardia and other cardiac complications due to its beta-agonist properties. Choice B, cervical dilation of 2 cm, is not a contraindication for terbutaline administration in preterm labor. Choice C, gestational age of 34 weeks, does not contraindicate the use of terbutaline for preterm labor. Choice D, allergy to penicillin, is not related to the contraindications of terbutaline.
3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?
- A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL.
- B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3.
- C. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3.
- D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm3 is low and indicates leukopenia, which increases the client's risk for infection. Hemoglobin level and platelet count are not directly indicative of infection risk. Serum creatinine level is related to kidney function, not infection risk.
4. A client in the delivery room just delivered a newborn, and the nurse is planning to promote parent-infant bonding. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Encourage the parents to touch and explore the newborn's features
- B. Limit noise and interruptions in the delivery room
- C. Place the newborn at the client's breast
- D. Position the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Positioning the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest is the priority action to promote warmth, regulate the newborn's heart rate and breathing, and enhance parent-infant bonding. This method facilitates early bonding, stabilizes the baby's temperature, and encourages breastfeeding initiation. Encouraging parents to touch and explore the newborn's features is important but not the priority at this moment. Limiting noise and interruptions can be beneficial but not as crucial as skin-to-skin contact for bonding. Placing the newborn at the client's breast is essential for breastfeeding but should come after the initial skin-to-skin contact for bonding and temperature regulation.
5. A client has a new diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- B. You should decrease your intake of high-sodium foods.
- C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a client with nephrotic syndrome, decreasing the intake of high-sodium foods is essential to manage fluid retention and symptoms of the condition. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid retention, swelling, and worsen the condition. Therefore, advising the client to decrease their high-sodium food intake aligns with the dietary management approach to help control nephrotic syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing high-sodium foods would exacerbate fluid retention, avoiding lactose is not specifically required for nephrotic syndrome, and increasing dairy products may not be necessary unless individualized based on the client's needs and lab values.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99