ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. An older adult with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease has been experiencing fecal incontinence, with no recent change in stool character noted by the nurse. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?
- A. Keep a food diary to identify foods that worsen the client's symptoms
- B. Provide the client with a bland, low-residue diet
- C. Toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis
- D. Collaborate with the primary provider to secure an order for loperamide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for an older adult with Alzheimer's disease experiencing fecal incontinence and no change in stool character is to toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis. Scheduled toileting can help manage incontinence by establishing a routine for bowel movements, which may aid in reducing episodes of fecal incontinence.
2. A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?
- A. High Fowler's position.
- B. Supine position.
- C. Trendelenburg position.
- D. Sims' position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.
3. A client returns to the unit after a neck dissection. The surgeon placed a Jackson-Pratt drain in the wound. When assessing the wound drainage over the first 24 postoperative hours, what finding would prompt the nurse to notify the health care provider immediately?
- A. Presence of small blood clots in the drainage
- B. 60 mL of milky or cloudy drainage
- C. Spots of drainage on the dressings surrounding the drain
- D. 120 mL of serosanguinous drainage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Milky or cloudy drainage can indicate infection or lymphatic leakage, which requires immediate attention. This finding may suggest a serious complication post neck dissection, warranting prompt notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
4. A 50-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol use. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum amylase and lipase. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Acute cholecystitis
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Acute pancreatitis
- D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient's history of heavy alcohol use, severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, vomiting, and elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are classic signs of acute pancreatitis. Alcohol consumption is a common predisposing factor for pancreatitis, leading to inflammation of the pancreas. The clinical presentation, along with the laboratory findings, strongly support the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis in this patient.
5. A client with diabetes has a new prescription for 14 units of regular insulin and 28 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at breakfast daily. What is the total number of units of insulin that should be prepared in the insulin syringe?
- A. 42 units
- B. 14 units
- C. 28 units
- D. 32 units
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total number of units of insulin, you need to add the 14 units of regular insulin to the 28 units of NPH insulin, which equals 42 units. Therefore, the nurse should prepare 42 units of insulin in the syringe for the client.
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