Nursing Elites

1. After sustaining a closed head injury and numerous lacerations and abrasions to the face and neck, a five-year-old child is admitted to the emergency room. The client is unconscious and has minimal response to noxious stimuli. Which of the following assessments, if observed by the nurse three hours after admission, should be reported to the physician?

• A. The client has slight edema of the eyelids
• B. There is clear fluid draining from the client's right ear
• C. There is some bleeding from the child's lacerations
• D. The client withdraws in response to painful stimuli

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clear fluid draining from the ear can indicate cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a serious concern after a head injury. This leakage can signify a skull fracture or damage to the meninges, potentially leading to infection. Therefore, it should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are typical findings after head trauma and are not as urgent as the presence of clear fluid draining from the ear.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is constipated. What intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Administer a laxative to relieve discomfort
• B. Encourage the client to increase dietary fiber intake
• C. Encourage the client to rest until symptoms resolve
• D. Administer a stool softener as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for constipation is to encourage the client to increase dietary fiber intake. Fiber helps promote bowel movements and relieve constipation by adding bulk to the stool. Administering a laxative (Choice A) should not be the first-line intervention as it can lead to dependence. Encouraging rest (Choice C) is not directly helpful in relieving constipation. While administering a stool softener (Choice D) can be beneficial, increasing fiber intake is generally preferred as the initial intervention.

3. What are the side effects of chemotherapy, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, vomiting; manage with antiemetics
• B. Hair loss and anemia; manage with blood transfusions
• C. Diarrhea and fatigue; manage with hydration
• D. Weight gain and high blood pressure; manage with diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct side effects of chemotherapy mentioned in this question are nausea and vomiting. These side effects are commonly managed with antiemetics to improve the quality of life for patients undergoing chemotherapy. Choice B (Hair loss and anemia) is incorrect as hair loss and anemia are potential side effects of chemotherapy but are not addressed in this question. Choice C (Diarrhea and fatigue) is also incorrect as it does not match the side effects provided. Choice D (Weight gain and high blood pressure) is inaccurate as these are not typical side effects of chemotherapy.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

5. What is the first step in assessing a patient with suspected stroke?

• A. Check for facial droop
• B. Assess speech clarity
• C. Perform a neurological assessment
• D. Call for emergency assistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to call for emergency assistance (Option D) when assessing a patient with suspected stroke. Time is crucial in stroke management, and activating emergency services promptly can ensure timely access to specialized care such as stroke units and treatments like thrombolytic therapy. Checking for facial droop (Option A), assessing speech clarity (Option B), and performing a neurological assessment (Option C) are important steps in evaluating a stroke but should follow the immediate action of calling for emergency assistance. These initial assessments can help confirm the suspicion of a stroke and provide valuable information to healthcare providers when they arrive. However, the priority is to ensure the patient receives appropriate care without delay by activating emergency services.

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