Nursing Elites

1. A postpartum client is experiencing heavy lochia and a boggy uterus. What should be the nurse's initial action?

• A. Administer a uterotonic medication
• B. Encourage the client to void
• C. Perform fundal massage
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action for a postpartum client experiencing heavy lochia and a boggy uterus is to perform fundal massage. Fundal massage helps to firm the uterus and reduce bleeding by promoting uterine contractions, which can assist in preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Administering uterotonic medication may be necessary in some cases but should not be the initial action. Encouraging the client to void and increasing fluid intake can be important interventions but are not the priority in this situation where immediate uterine firmness is needed to control bleeding.

2. Following delivery of a newborn, the 21-year-old mother is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding. You note that her heart rate has increased from 90 to 120 beats/min and she is diaphoretic. In addition to administering high-flow oxygen, treatment should include:

• A. treating for shock and uterine massage during transport.
• B. uterine massage and transport.
• C. placing her on her left side and transport.
• D. internal vaginal pads and treating for shock during transport.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the mother is showing signs of postpartum hemorrhage with increased heart rate, diaphoresis, and mild vaginal bleeding. The correct approach involves treating for shock by addressing hypovolemia and providing uterine massage to help control bleeding. Administering high-flow oxygen is essential. Therefore, the most appropriate option is to treat for shock and perform uterine massage during transport to manage the postpartum hemorrhage effectively.

3. A new mother expresses concern about her baby's frequent hiccups. What should the nurse explain about newborn hiccups?

• A. Hiccups are a sign of respiratory distress in newborns.
• B. Hiccups indicate the baby is overeating.
• C. Hiccups are common and usually harmless in newborns.
• D. Hiccups are caused by a lack of burping.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Newborn hiccups are common and usually harmless. They are typically caused by the baby's immature diaphragm and tend to resolve on their own. It is essential for parents to understand that hiccups in newborns are a normal phenomenon and do not necessarily indicate any underlying health issue. Choice A is incorrect because hiccups are not a sign of respiratory distress in newborns. Choice B is incorrect as hiccups do not indicate the baby is overeating. Choice D is also incorrect as hiccups are not solely caused by a lack of burping.

4. Your assessment of a 5-year-old child reveals that he is unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. Treatment for this child should include:

• A. high-flow oxygen via non-rebreathing mask and rapid transport.
• B. assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device and rapid transport.
• C. positive-pressure ventilation, chest compressions, and rapid transport.
• D. back slaps and chest thrusts while attempting artificial ventilations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 5-year-old child who is unresponsive with severe bradycardia and bradypnea, the priority is to provide positive-pressure ventilation to support breathing and perform chest compressions to support circulation. This child is in cardiac arrest, and the recommended treatment according to pediatric basic life support guidelines involves a combination of positive-pressure ventilation and chest compressions to maintain oxygenation and circulation. Rapid transport to a medical facility for further advanced care is crucial in this critical situation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because high-flow oxygen via non-rebreathing mask, assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device, and back slaps with chest thrusts are not sufficient in a cardiac arrest situation where the child requires immediate positive-pressure ventilation and chest compressions to maintain oxygenation and circulation.

5. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

Similar Questions