ATI LPN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 with NGN
1. A postpartum client is concerned about hair loss. The nurse explains that this is:
- A. A sign of nutritional deficiency
- B. A temporary condition due to hormonal changes
- C. An indication of a thyroid disorder
- D. A result of poor hair care during pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hair loss postpartum is a common temporary condition caused by hormonal changes that occur after giving birth. This condition is known as postpartum alopecia and is a normal part of the postpartum period. It is important for the nurse to reassure the client that this hair loss is temporary and usually resolves on its own without the need for medical intervention. Choice A is incorrect because postpartum hair loss is primarily due to hormonal changes rather than nutritional deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as thyroid disorder is not typically the cause of postpartum hair loss. Choice D is incorrect as poor hair care during pregnancy does not cause postpartum hair loss.
2. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day.
- B. Restrict fluid intake to 2000 mL per day.
- C. Increase your salt intake to prevent electrolyte imbalance.
- D. Exercise vigorously at least three times a week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day. This instruction is crucial because daily weights help in early detection of fluid retention, a common complication in heart failure. Monitoring weight is essential for managing heart failure and preventing exacerbations. Choice B is incorrect because fluid restriction may be necessary in some cases of heart failure, but a general limit of 2000 mL per day is not appropriate without individual assessment. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake can worsen fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while exercise is beneficial for heart health, vigorous exercise may not be suitable for all heart failure patients and should be tailored to their specific condition.
3. When collecting data from a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Amnesia
- B. Hypervigilance
- C. Hallucinations
- D. Severe agitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct manifestation to expect when collecting data from a client with PTSD is hypervigilance. Hypervigilance refers to increased alertness, which is a common symptom of PTSD. This heightened state of awareness is characterized by an exaggerated startle response, being easily startled, and constantly scanning the environment for potential threats. Amnesia (choice A) is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; it is more commonly associated with dissociative disorders. Hallucinations (choice C) involve perceiving things that are not present and are not typically a hallmark symptom of PTSD. Severe agitation (choice D) may occur in individuals with PTSD, but hypervigilance is a more specific and common manifestation associated with this disorder.
4. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- B. Increase intake of dairy products.
- C. Limit intake of citrus fruits.
- D. Avoid high-sodium foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients on warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K because vitamin K can interfere with the anticoagulant effect of the medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so consuming large amounts of vitamin K-rich foods may decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of dairy products, limiting citrus fruits, or avoiding high-sodium foods are not directly related to the mechanism of action of warfarin or its dietary considerations.
5. What are the signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal, and how should they be managed?
- A. Nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate; manage with methadone
- B. Pain and restlessness; manage with naloxone
- C. Hallucinations and muscle cramps; manage with clonidine
- D. Severe vomiting and seizures; manage with benzodiazepines
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal include nausea, sweating, and increased heart rate. Methadone is commonly used to manage opioid withdrawal symptoms by alleviating them. Choice B, managing with naloxone, is incorrect as naloxone is primarily used for opioid overdose reversal, not withdrawal. Choice C, managing with clonidine, is incorrect as clonidine is used to manage some symptoms of withdrawal, such as anxiety, agitation, and hypertension, but not hallucinations. Choice D, managing with benzodiazepines, is incorrect as benzodiazepines are not typically used as first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal; they may be considered in specific cases but are not a standard approach.
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