Nursing Elites

1. An infant with congestive heart failure is receiving diuretic therapy. A nurse is closely monitoring the intake and output. The nurse uses which most appropriate method to assess the urine output?

• A. Weighing the diapers
• B. Inserting a Foley catheter
• C. Comparing intake with output
• D. Measuring the amount of water added to formula

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weighing the diapers is the most appropriate method to assess urine output in infants. Diapers will absorb and retain urine, providing a measurable indicator of urine output without invasive procedures. This method is non-invasive, simple, and convenient for monitoring urine output, especially in infants who may not be able to use other urine output measurement techniques. Inserting a Foley catheter is invasive and not indicated for routine urine output monitoring in infants. Comparing intake with output does not directly measure urine output. Measuring the amount of water added to formula does not provide an accurate assessment of urine output.

2. When managing Akosua Adepa, an eight-year-old diagnosed with Asthma, the nurse will consider the following as complications EXCEPT:

• A. Cor pulmonale
• B. Respiratory arrest
• C. Respiratory distress
• D. Respiratory failure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a pediatric patient with asthma, the nurse needs to be vigilant about potential complications. While cor pulmonale, respiratory arrest, and respiratory failure are known complications of asthma, respiratory distress is not typically considered a direct complication. Respiratory distress is more of a symptom or a sign of worsening asthma, indicating the need for immediate intervention to prevent progression to more severe complications.

3. What assessment finding places a newborn at risk for developing physiologic jaundice?

• A. Cephalohematoma
• B. Mongolian spots
• C. Telangiectatic nevi
• D. Molding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Cephalohematoma. Physiologic jaundice in newborns can occur due to the breakdown of excess red blood cells. A cephalohematoma, a collection of blood caused by ruptured blood vessels between a cranial bone's surface and periosteal membrane, can lead to increased red blood cell breakdown. This increased breakdown can contribute to the development of physiologic jaundice in newborns. Choices B, Mongolian spots, and C, Telangiectatic nevi, are both benign skin conditions and are not directly associated with increased red blood cell breakdown. Choice D, Molding, refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is not related to the development of physiologic jaundice.

4. A child was brought to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, vomiting, and fruity-scented breath. The resident on duty diagnosed the child with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Potassium chloride IV infusion.
• B. Dextrose 5% IV infusion.
• C. Ringer's Lactate.
• D. Normal saline IV infusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), there is a state of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Normal saline is the initial fluid of choice to help restore intravascular volume and improve electrolyte balance. It also helps to correct acidosis. Potassium chloride IV infusion is commonly added to the treatment regimen once kidney function is confirmed to prevent hypokalemia. Dextrose 5% IV infusion is not the first-line treatment for DKA as it can worsen hyperglycemia. Ringer's Lactate is not typically used as the initial fluid for managing DKA as it contains potassium and could worsen hyperkalemia.

5. In contrast to the contractions associated with true labor, Braxton-Hicks contractions:

• A. generally follow rupture of the amniotic sac and occur with regularity.
• B. may be intensified by activity and are accompanied by a pink discharge.
• C. do not increase in intensity and are alleviated by a change in position.
• D. consistently become stronger and are not alleviated by changing position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Braxton-Hicks contractions are irregular and usually do not increase in intensity. Unlike true labor contractions, they tend to alleviate with a change in position, making option C the correct choice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Braxton-Hicks contractions do not follow rupture of the amniotic sac, are not intensified by activity or accompanied by a pink discharge, and do not consistently become stronger or are not alleviated by changing position.

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