Nursing Elites

1. When a patient with schizophrenia is taking haloperidol, what is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Assessing for signs of tardive dyskinesia
• B. Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Checking for signs of depression
• D. Monitoring for changes in appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is crucial for patients taking haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, unstable blood pressure, confusion, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Early detection and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications.

2. Which therapeutic intervention is most appropriate for a patient diagnosed with dissociative amnesia?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Hypnotherapy
• C. Electroconvulsive therapy
• D. Pharmacotherapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypnotherapy is the most appropriate therapeutic intervention for a patient diagnosed with dissociative amnesia. This approach aims to help the patient recover lost memories in a controlled environment, allowing them to process and integrate their memories effectively. Hypnotherapy can assist in uncovering and addressing the underlying issues contributing to dissociative amnesia. Cognitive-behavioral therapy focuses on changing negative patterns of thinking or behavior and may not directly address memory recovery. Electroconvulsive therapy is typically used for severe depression or certain mental disorders, not dissociative amnesia. Pharmacotherapy involves medication and is not the primary intervention for dissociative amnesia.

3. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, ‘You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-a-week dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As the patient transitions to maintenance therapy, the typical approach involves decreasing the dosage to a lower level. This adjustment is made to find the minimum effective dose needed for symptom control while reducing the potential side effects associated with long-term use. Choosing a higher dosage (A) would not align with the goal of maintenance therapy, as it may increase the risk of adverse effects. Once-a-week dosing (B) is not a common adjustment for lithium, which is usually prescribed daily for bipolar disorder. Switching to a different drug (D) is typically considered if the current medication is ineffective or intolerable, not as a routine step in transitioning to maintenance therapy.

4. During a mental health assessment, a patient states, 'I just don't see the point in anything anymore.' This statement is an indication of which of the following?

• A. Anxiety disorder
• B. Bipolar disorder
• C. Depression
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's statement 'I just don't see the point in anything anymore' reflects feelings of hopelessness and a lack of purpose, which are common symptoms of depression. Depression is characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, emptiness, and loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable. While anxiety disorders can involve excessive worry and fear, bipolar disorder includes episodes of both depression and mania, and schizophrenia typically involves symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, depression is the most appropriate choice based on the patient's statement.

5. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the patient to suppress their compulsive behaviors.
• B. Allow the patient to perform their rituals, then gradually limit the time spent on these rituals.
• C. Discourage the patient from discussing their obsessions.
• D. Avoid setting limits on the patient’s compulsive behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD, it is crucial to allow them to perform their rituals while gradually limiting the time spent on these rituals. This approach helps the patient feel supported while working towards reducing the compulsive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because suppressing compulsive behaviors can increase anxiety and distress. Choice C is inappropriate as discussing obsessions is part of therapy. Choice D is not recommended as setting limits on compulsive behaviors is essential for treatment.

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