Nursing Elites

1. When a patient with schizophrenia is taking haloperidol, what is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Assessing for signs of tardive dyskinesia
• B. Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Checking for signs of depression
• D. Monitoring for changes in appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is crucial for patients taking haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, unstable blood pressure, confusion, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Early detection and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications.

2. A patient with bipolar disorder is being educated by a nurse on the importance of medication adherence. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?

• A. I will take my medication only when I feel manic symptoms.
• B. I understand that I need to take my medication regularly, even if I feel well.
• C. I will stop taking my medication if I experience side effects.
• D. I will take my medication whenever I remember.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking medication regularly, even when feeling well, is crucial in managing bipolar disorder. Choice A is incorrect because medication adherence should not be based on symptoms alone. Choice C is incorrect as stopping medication due to side effects should be discussed with a healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect because relying on memory may lead to missed doses, impacting treatment effectiveness.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which symptom would be most indicative of this disorder?

• A. Frequent nightmares
• B. Persistent worrying about multiple issues
• C. Excessive sleeping
• D. Loss of interest in daily activities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Persistent worrying about multiple issues is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Individuals with GAD often experience excessive, uncontrollable worry about various aspects of their life, such as work, relationships, and health. This persistent and excessive worrying distinguishes GAD from normal everyday concerns and is a defining feature of the disorder. Frequent nightmares (Choice A) are more commonly associated with conditions like post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) rather than GAD. Excessive sleeping (Choice C) is not a typical symptom of GAD, as individuals with GAD often experience difficulty falling or staying asleep due to their anxious thoughts. Loss of interest in daily activities (Choice D) is more characteristic of conditions like depression rather than GAD.

4. During the working phase of a therapeutic relationship, a client with methamphetamine use disorder displays transference behavior. Which action by the client indicates transference behavior?

• A. The client asks the nurse if they will go out to dinner together
• B. The client accuses the nurse of being controlling just like an ex-partner
• C. The client reminds the nurse of a friend who died from substance toxicity
• D. The client becomes angry and threatens to engage in self-harm

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Transference occurs when a client projects feelings, often unconscious, onto the nurse that are associated with significant figures in their past or present life. In this scenario, the client accusing the nurse of being controlling like an ex-partner demonstrates transference behavior by attributing characteristics of someone from their past onto the nurse. Choices A, C, and D do not reflect transference behavior. Choice A involves a social invitation, which is not necessarily transference. Choice C is more related to countertransference as it triggers memories in the nurse, not the client. Choice D describes aggressive behavior and self-harm threats, which are not indicative of transference.

5. What is the primary goal of exposure therapy for a patient with specific phobia?

• A. To eliminate the phobic response completely
• B. To increase the patient's exposure to the feared object
• C. To help the patient confront and reduce their fear gradually
• D. To provide immediate relief from anxiety symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of exposure therapy for a patient with a specific phobia is to help them confront their fear gradually, leading to a reduction in their fear response over time. This gradual exposure helps the individual learn to manage and cope with their phobia, ultimately reducing the intensity of their fear reactions. Choice A is incorrect because while the goal is to reduce the fear response, complete elimination may not always be feasible. Choice B is incorrect as the focus is not solely on increasing exposure but on gradual confrontation. Choice D is incorrect as the therapy aims for long-term reduction rather than immediate relief.

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