ATI LPN
ATI Mental Health Practice A 2023
1. When a patient with schizophrenia is taking haloperidol, what is a priority assessment for the nurse?
- A. Assessing for signs of tardive dyskinesia
- B. Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- C. Checking for signs of depression
- D. Monitoring for changes in appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is crucial for patients taking haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, unstable blood pressure, confusion, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Early detection and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Respiratory rate
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, which can cause respiratory depression. Assessing the respiratory rate before administering naloxone is crucial to monitor the patient's breathing. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments in general patient care but are not specifically crucial before administering naloxone for opioid overdose.
3. A client with heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in magnesium
- B. Take furosemide with food
- C. Eat foods that are rich in potassium
- D. Expect a decrease in blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat foods that are rich in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause the loss of potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Eating foods high in potassium can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium. Choice B is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that typically leads to a decrease in blood pressure rather than an increase.
4. Proteins are absorbed primarily in the form of:
- A. fatty acids.
- B. disaccharides.
- C. amino acids.
- D. polypeptides.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: amino acids. Proteins are broken down by digestive enzymes into amino acids before being absorbed in the small intestine. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins and are the form in which they are primarily absorbed. Choice A (fatty acids) is incorrect as fatty acids are the end products of fat digestion, not protein digestion. Choice B (disaccharides) is incorrect because disaccharides are sugars that are broken down into monosaccharides, not proteins. Choice D (polypeptides) is incorrect as proteins are broken down into amino acids and not absorbed as polypeptides.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 4-month-old infant. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare professional use?
- A. Ventrogluteal
- B. Deltoid
- C. Dorsogluteal
- D. Vastus lateralis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants under 1 year of age because it is well developed and easily accessible compared to other muscle groups. The ventrogluteal and deltoid sites are not typically used for infants due to muscle development and size. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for infants or young children due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99