Nursing Elites

1. In cognitive processing therapy for PTSD, what is the primary goal for the patient?

• A. To help the patient process the trauma and reduce avoidance behaviors.
• B. To help the patient confront and process the trauma in a safe environment.
• C. To help the patient understand the impact of the trauma on their current thoughts and behaviors.
• D. To help the patient avoid triggers that remind them of the trauma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of cognitive processing therapy for PTSD is to help the patient understand the impact of the trauma on their current thoughts and behaviors. Through this therapy, individuals learn to identify and challenge maladaptive beliefs related to the traumatic event, ultimately helping them to process the trauma and develop healthier coping mechanisms. This approach aims to address the cognitive distortions and negative thoughts that have resulted from the trauma, facilitating healing and recovery.

2. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed sertraline. What is a common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Weight gain
• C. Insomnia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect associated with sertraline, a medication commonly used in the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). It is essential for the nurse to monitor for nausea as it can impact the patient's adherence to the medication regimen. Educating the patient about this potential side effect and advising ways to manage it can enhance treatment compliance and overall therapeutic outcomes.

3. When orienting a new client to a mental health unit, which of the following statements should the nurse make about the unit’s community meetings?

• A. “Clients gather to discuss their treatment plans together.”
• B. “Staff establish a specific agenda for community meetings.”
• C. “Clients meet with staff to discuss common problems.”
• D. “Community meetings provide an opportunity to explore personal mental health issues.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During community meetings in a mental health unit, clients come together with staff to discuss common problems they may be facing. These meetings are designed to foster a sense of community and provide support and guidance to clients. Choice A is incorrect because community meetings focus on discussions beyond individual treatment plans. Choice B is incorrect as while staff may facilitate the meetings, the focus is on clients' concerns, not a predetermined agenda. Choice D is incorrect as the primary purpose of community meetings is to address shared challenges, not individual mental health issues.

4. Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

• A. Apathy
• B. Social withdrawal
• C. Delusions
• D. Flat affect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Delusions.' Positive symptoms of schizophrenia involve an excess or distortion of normal functions. Delusions are fixed false beliefs that are not based in reality and are considered positive symptoms because they represent an addition of abnormal behavior or thoughts.

5. When a patient with schizophrenia is taking haloperidol, what is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Assessing for signs of tardive dyskinesia
• B. Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Checking for signs of depression
• D. Monitoring for changes in appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is crucial for patients taking haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, unstable blood pressure, confusion, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Early detection and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications.

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