ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being discharged home. Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about managing blood glucose levels?
- A. I will test my blood glucose level once a week.
- B. I should eat a snack if my blood glucose is 70 mg/dl.
- C. If I feel shaky, I should take another dose of insulin.
- D. It's okay to skip a meal if I'm not hungry.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Eating a snack when blood glucose is low (70 mg/dl) can help prevent hypoglycemia. It is important for clients with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels to prevent complications, and consuming a snack when glucose levels drop can help maintain the balance.
2. What is the most likely diagnosis in a 30-year-old woman with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with elevated white blood cell count and bilirubin levels?
- A. Acute hepatitis
- B. Acute cholecystitis
- C. Acute cholangitis
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The combination of right upper quadrant pain, fever, jaundice, elevated white blood cell count, and bilirubin levels is classic for acute cholangitis, which is an infection of the bile ducts. Acute hepatitis typically presents with other liver function abnormalities, while acute cholecystitis is characterized by gallbladder inflammation. Pancreatic cancer would not typically present with these specific symptoms and lab findings.
3. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Relieve neuropathic pain
- B. Reduce inflammation
- C. Enhance opioid analgesia
- D. Suppress cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Gabapentin is primarily prescribed to relieve neuropathic pain. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the nerves, making it effective in managing conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, and other forms of chronic pain originating from nerve damage.
4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works by prolonging the clotting time, which is reflected in the aPTT results. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range and not at risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (PT) (Choice A) primarily measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice B) assesses the number of platelets present in the blood and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. International normalized ratio (INR) (Choice D) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.
5. Which intervention should the nurse implement to enhance the efficacy of the client's asthma medication therapy?
- A. Administer the albuterol inhaler before other inhaled medications.
- B. Provide oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters/minute.
- C. Encourage the client to drink three liters of fluids daily.
- D. Keep the client upright during nebulizer therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator such as albuterol as the first step is crucial to open the airways, allowing better penetration of subsequent inhaled medications and enhancing their overall efficacy in managing asthma symptoms.
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