Nursing Elites

1. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed sertraline. What is a common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Weight gain
• C. Insomnia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect associated with sertraline, a medication commonly used in the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). It is essential for the nurse to monitor for nausea as it can impact the patient's adherence to the medication regimen. Educating the patient about this potential side effect and advising ways to manage it can enhance treatment compliance and overall therapeutic outcomes.

2. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine. What is a common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Nausea
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of fluoxetine and should be monitored.

3. A client has a new prescription for disulfiram for the treatment of alcohol use disorder. The nurse informs the client that this medication can cause nausea and vomiting when alcohol is consumed. Which of the following types of treatment is this method an example of?

• A. Aversion therapy
• B. Flooding
• C. Biofeedback
• D. Dialectical behavior therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Aversion therapy is a form of behavioral therapy that aims to create a negative response to a stimulus, in this case, alcohol consumption. Disulfiram is used in aversion therapy to induce unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed, such as nausea and vomiting, to deter the individual from drinking. Therefore, the use of disulfiram in this context exemplifies aversion therapy. Flooding involves exposing an individual to a feared object or situation to overcome anxiety; biofeedback teaches self-regulation techniques, and dialectical behavior therapy is a type of cognitive-behavioral therapy focusing on acceptance and change strategies, which are not directly related to the use of disulfiram for alcohol use disorder.

4. Which of the following interventions is most effective in managing a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Encouraging the patient to engage in repetitive behaviors.
• B. Helping the patient to understand that their thoughts are irrational.
• C. Providing the patient with a structured daily routine.
• D. Allowing the patient to avoid situations that trigger their obsessions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention in managing a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is helping the patient to understand that their thoughts are irrational. This cognitive-behavioral approach can assist in reducing the frequency and intensity of obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors by challenging and reframing maladaptive beliefs and thought patterns associated with OCD. Encouraging the patient to engage in repetitive behaviors (choice A) reinforces the compulsive behavior rather than addressing the underlying issue. Providing a structured daily routine (choice C) may help in some cases but does not directly target the irrational thoughts and beliefs. Allowing the patient to avoid trigger situations (choice D) can provide temporary relief but does not address the core problem of irrational thoughts and behaviors.

5. A patient is receiving education about dietary restrictions while taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which food should the patient avoid?

• A. Aged cheese
• B. Fresh vegetables
• C. Grilled chicken
• D. Fruit juices

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients taking MAOIs should avoid aged cheese as it contains high levels of tyramine, which can lead to a hypertensive crisis. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors can inhibit the breakdown of tyramine, leading to an excess accumulation in the body and potentially dangerous increases in blood pressure.

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