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ATI Mental Health Practice A 2023
1. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed sertraline. What is a common side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Weight gain
- C. Insomnia
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect associated with sertraline, a medication commonly used in the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). It is essential for the nurse to monitor for nausea as it can impact the patient's adherence to the medication regimen. Educating the patient about this potential side effect and advising ways to manage it can enhance treatment compliance and overall therapeutic outcomes.
2. A patient diagnosed with panic disorder asks the nurse about the purpose of deep breathing exercises. Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
- A. Deep breathing helps distract you from your anxiety.
- B. Deep breathing can prevent future panic attacks.
- C. Deep breathing helps reduce physical symptoms of anxiety.
- D. Deep breathing increases your overall lung capacity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Deep breathing helps reduce the physical symptoms of anxiety, such as rapid heartbeat and shortness of breath.
3. Which of the following is an example of a cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) technique?
- A. Free association
- B. Thought stopping
- C. Dream analysis
- D. Systematic desensitization
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thought stopping is a specific cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) technique aimed at helping individuals manage and interrupt negative or intrusive thoughts. This technique involves identifying and stopping negative thought patterns to promote healthier thinking and emotional well-being. Free association and dream analysis are associated with psychoanalytic therapy, while systematic desensitization is a technique commonly used in behavior therapy.
4. When orienting a new client to a mental health unit, which of the following statements should the nurse make about the unit’s community meetings?
- A. “Clients gather to discuss their treatment plans together.”
- B. “Staff establish a specific agenda for community meetings.”
- C. “Clients meet with staff to discuss common problems.”
- D. “Community meetings provide an opportunity to explore personal mental health issues.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During community meetings in a mental health unit, clients come together with staff to discuss common problems they may be facing. These meetings are designed to foster a sense of community and provide support and guidance to clients. Choice A is incorrect because community meetings focus on discussions beyond individual treatment plans. Choice B is incorrect as while staff may facilitate the meetings, the focus is on clients' concerns, not a predetermined agenda. Choice D is incorrect as the primary purpose of community meetings is to address shared challenges, not individual mental health issues.
5. Child protective services have removed 10-year-old Christopher from his parents’ home due to neglect. Christopher reveals to the nurse that he considers the woman next door his “nice” mom, that he loves school, and gets above-average grades. The strongest explanation for this response is:
- A. Temperament
- B. Genetic factors
- C. Resilience
- D. Paradoxical effects of neglect
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Resilience is the ability to adapt well despite adversity, which is demonstrated by Christopher's positive relationships and school performance. Despite the challenging situation of being removed from his parents' home, Christopher's ability to form a positive bond with the neighbor, enjoy school, and excel academically showcases his resilience in coping with the circumstances.
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