Nursing Elites

1. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. Which statement by the patient indicates effective understanding of the medication?

• A. I will take this medication only when I feel anxious.
• B. I should start feeling less anxious within a few days.
• C. This medication can be addictive if taken for a long time.
• D. It may take a few weeks for this medication to become effective.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because buspirone may take a few weeks to become effective in treating generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Patients should be aware of this delay and not expect immediate relief from their symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone is typically taken regularly, not just when feeling anxious. Choice B is incorrect because the onset of action for buspirone is gradual, and patients should not expect immediate relief within a few days. Choice C is incorrect because buspirone is not considered addictive, unlike some other medications used for anxiety disorders.

2. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, ‘You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-a-week dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As the patient transitions to maintenance therapy, the typical approach involves decreasing the dosage to a lower level. This adjustment is made to find the minimum effective dose needed for symptom control while reducing the potential side effects associated with long-term use. Choosing a higher dosage (A) would not align with the goal of maintenance therapy, as it may increase the risk of adverse effects. Once-a-week dosing (B) is not a common adjustment for lithium, which is usually prescribed daily for bipolar disorder. Switching to a different drug (D) is typically considered if the current medication is ineffective or intolerable, not as a routine step in transitioning to maintenance therapy.

3. A community mental health nurse is planning care to address the issue of depression among older adult clients in the community. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement as a method of tertiary prevention?

• A. Educating clients on health promotion techniques to reduce the risk of depression
• B. Performing screenings for depression at community health programs
• C. Establishing rehabilitation programs to decrease the effects of depression
• D. Providing support groups for clients at risk for depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Establishing rehabilitation programs to decrease the effects of depression is a method of tertiary prevention.

4. During a mental health assessment, a patient states, 'I just don't see the point in anything anymore.' This statement is an indication of which of the following?

• A. Anxiety disorder
• B. Bipolar disorder
• C. Depression
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's statement 'I just don't see the point in anything anymore' reflects feelings of hopelessness and a lack of purpose, which are common symptoms of depression. Depression is characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, emptiness, and loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable. While anxiety disorders can involve excessive worry and fear, bipolar disorder includes episodes of both depression and mania, and schizophrenia typically involves symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, depression is the most appropriate choice based on the patient's statement.

5. A patient with panic disorder is being cared for by a healthcare provider. Which medication is commonly prescribed as a first-line treatment?

• A. Benzodiazepines
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants
• C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly prescribed as a first-line treatment for panic disorder due to their efficacy and lower risk of dependence and tolerance development compared to benzodiazepines. Tricyclic antidepressants and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are not typically recommended as initial treatments for panic disorder because of their side effect profiles and the availability of safer and more effective options like SSRIs.

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