ATI LPN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. What is an important aspect of patient education regarding buspirone when prescribed for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
- A. Buspirone is an as-needed medication for anxiety.
- B. Buspirone has a high risk of addiction and dependence.
- C. Buspirone may not become effective until 2-4 weeks after starting the medication.
- D. Buspirone should be taken with food to increase absorption.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When educating a patient about buspirone for generalized anxiety disorder, it is crucial to highlight that buspirone may take 2-4 weeks to become effective. Patients need to be aware of this delayed onset of action to manage their expectations and continue the medication as prescribed. This information helps patients understand that they may not experience immediate relief and should not discontinue the medication prematurely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because buspirone is typically taken regularly, not as-needed, it has a lower risk of addiction compared to other anxiety medications, and it does not need to be taken with food for increased absorption.
2. A client with heart failure is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute
- B. Increase your fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day
- C. Report any weight loss of more than 2 pounds in a week
- D. Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal upset
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is to monitor the pulse before each dose and hold the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so it is crucial to assess the pulse rate before administration to prevent potential complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake, reporting weight loss, or taking the medication with meals are not specific instructions related to the safe use of digoxin.
3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Monitor ECG and administer insulin
- B. Monitor blood glucose levels and provide fluids
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness and administer calcium gluconate
- D. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide potassium supplements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: When assessing a patient with hyperkalemia, monitoring the ECG and administering insulin are crucial steps. Hyperkalemia can affect the heart's function, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any cardiac abnormalities associated with high potassium levels. Administering insulin, along with glucose, helps shift potassium from the bloodstream into the cells, temporarily lowering the potassium levels. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring blood glucose levels and providing fluids are not the primary interventions for hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring for muscle weakness and administering calcium gluconate are not the first-line treatments for hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate may be used in specific situations to stabilize cardiac cell membranes in severe cases of hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring electrolyte levels and providing potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia, as the patient already has elevated potassium levels and does not require additional potassium supplementation.
4. The nurse is using the New Ballard Score to assess the gestational age of a newborn delivered 4 hours ago. The infant's gestational age is 33 weeks based on early ultrasound and last menstrual period. The nurse expects the infant to exhibit which of the following?
- A. Full sole creases, nails extending beyond the fingertips, scarf sign showing the elbow beyond the midline
- B. Testes located in the upper scrotum, rugae covering the scrotum, vernix covering the entire body
- C. Ear cartilage folded over, lanugo present over much of the body, slow recoil time
- D. 1 cm breast bud, peeling skin and veins not visible, rapid recoil of legs and arms to extension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Ear cartilage folded over, lanugo present over much of the body, and slow recoil time are all characteristics of a preterm infant. A is incorrect because full sole creases, nails extending beyond the fingertips, and scarf sign showing the elbow beyond the midline are features of a term infant. B is incorrect as testes located in the upper scrotum, rugae covering the scrotum, and vernix covering the entire body are also indicative of a term infant. D is incorrect because a 1 cm breast bud, peeling skin and veins not visible, and rapid recoil of legs and arms to extension are characteristics seen in a more mature infant, not a preterm newborn.
5. A nurse is teaching postoperative care to the parents of a toddler following a cleft palate repair. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
- A. Provide an orthodontic pacifier for comfort
- B. Offer fluids using a straw
- C. Cleanse the suture line with a cotton-tip swab
- D. Remove elbow splints periodically to perform range of motion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Elbow splints are utilized to prevent the child from touching the surgical site. However, it is essential to remove them periodically to conduct range-of-motion exercises to prevent joint stiffness. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because providing an orthodontic pacifier, offering fluids using a straw, and cleansing the suture line with a cotton-tip swab are not directly related to postoperative care following a cleft palate repair.
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