ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl patch. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
- B. Change the patch every 72 hours.
- C. Avoid using additional heating pads over the patch.
- D. Remove the patch before showering.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a patient prescribed a fentanyl patch is to change the patch every 72 hours. This ensures consistent pain control and prevents complications. It is crucial to rotate the application sites to prevent skin irritation or reactions. Using additional heating pads over the patch should be avoided as it can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to overdose or adverse effects. Removing the patch before showering is not necessary as long as the patch is securely in place.
2. The client with a history of heart failure is taking furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Serum calcium.
- D. Serum magnesium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.
3. An 89-year-old male client complains to the nurse that people are whispering behind his back and mumbling when they talk to him. What age-related condition is likely to be occurring with this client?
- A. Delirium
- B. Presbyopia
- C. Presbycusis
- D. Cerebral dysfunction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Presbycusis. Presbycusis is age-related hearing loss that often affects the ability to hear high-pitched sounds, making speech appear mumbled. This condition is common in older adults and can lead to difficulties in understanding conversations, as in the case of the client complaining about people whispering and mumbling.
4. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing severe pain. Which medication is likely to be prescribed?
- A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- B. Ibuprofen (Advil)
- C. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)
- D. Prednisone (Deltasone)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methotrexate is commonly prescribed for rheumatoid arthritis to reduce inflammation and slow disease progression. It is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that helps control symptoms and prevent joint damage in individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. While acetaminophen and ibuprofen are used for pain relief, they are not typically prescribed to address the underlying inflammation and disease progression associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Prednisone may be used for short-term symptom relief or during disease flares, but it is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis.
5. A 56-year-old woman presents to discuss the results of her recent upper endoscopy. She was having some mild abdominal pain, so she underwent the procedure, which revealed an ulcer in the antrum of the stomach. Biopsy of the lesion revealed the presence of H. pylori. All of the following statements regarding her condition are correct except
- A. H. pylori has been associated with gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)
- B. Reinfection is rare despite adequate treatment
- C. Triple drug therapy has been shown to be more effective than dual drug therapy
- D. If her H. pylori IgG antibody titer was elevated prior to therapy, it can be used to monitor treatment efficacy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: H. pylori is associated with a majority of peptic ulcer disease cases and has links to gastric MALT and adenocarcinoma. Triple drug therapy is more effective than dual therapy. Reinfection after adequate treatment is rare. While urea breath testing is a better diagnostic tool, quantitative serology can monitor treatment efficacy. A 30% decrease in IgG titer should occur post-therapy, indicating effectiveness.
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