ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The client's current medication regimen includes lactulose four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention?
- A. Two to three soft bowel movements daily
- B. Significant increase in appetite and food intake
- C. Absence of nausea and vomiting
- D. Absence of blood or mucus in stool
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lactulose is used in hepatic encephalopathy to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting bowel movements. The desired outcome of lactulose therapy is typically two to three soft bowel movements daily, which helps in eliminating excess ammonia from the body, thus improving the client's condition.
2. A 40-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. He has a history of Crohn's disease. Laboratory tests reveal low hemoglobin and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Ulcerative colitis
- B. Irritable bowel syndrome
- C. Celiac disease
- D. Crohn's disease flare
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, along with the history of Crohn's disease, and the laboratory findings of low hemoglobin and elevated ESR, strongly suggest a Crohn's disease flare. These clinical manifestations are classic features of a flare-up in a patient with a known history of Crohn's disease.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg, the healthcare professional should administer 2 tablets of 0.125 mg each, totaling 0.25 mg.
4. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing severe dyspnea. What position should the nurse encourage the patient to assume?
- A. Supine
- B. Prone
- C. High Fowler's
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The High Fowler's position is the most appropriate position for a patient with COPD experiencing severe dyspnea. This position helps improve lung expansion and reduce dyspnea by allowing the diaphragm to move more freely and increasing the efficiency of breathing. It also helps reduce the work of breathing and enhances oxygenation in patients with COPD. Supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. Prone position (Choice B) is not ideal for COPD patients experiencing severe dyspnea as it may restrict breathing. Trendelenburg position (Choice D) is not recommended for COPD patients with dyspnea as it can further compromise breathing.
5. During an admission physical assessment, the nurse is examining a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the pediatric healthcare provider?
- A. Heel stick glucose of 65 mg/dL.
- B. Head circumference of 35 cm (14 inches).
- C. Widened, tense, bulging fontanel.
- D. High-pitched shrill cry.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A widened, tense, bulging fontanel is a critical finding in a newborn as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure. This condition requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent further complications. Monitoring fontanel status is crucial in assessing the newborn's neurological well-being and ensuring early detection of potential issues.
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