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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client with anxiety disorder is scheduled to begin classical psychoanalysis. Which client statement indicates an understanding of this form of therapy?
- A. “Even if my anxiety improves, I will need to continue this therapy for 6 weeks”
- B. “The therapist will focus on my past relationships during our sessions”
- C. “Psychoanalysis will help me reduce my anxiety by changing my behaviors”
- D. “This therapy will address my conscious feelings about stressful experiences”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In classical psychoanalysis, the therapist delves into the client's past relationships, childhood experiences, and unconscious thoughts to uncover underlying issues contributing to the client's current symptoms. Understanding that the therapist will focus on past relationships aligns with the core principles of classical psychoanalysis. Choice A is incorrect because the duration of classical psychoanalysis is typically longer than 6 weeks. Choice C is incorrect as changing behaviors is more aligned with behavioral therapy than classical psychoanalysis. Choice D is incorrect as classical psychoanalysis primarily focuses on unconscious thoughts rather than conscious feelings about stressful experiences.
2. When developing a care plan for a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which long-term goal is most appropriate?
- A. The patient will experience no episodes of anxiety.
- B. The patient will recognize and modify anxiety-provoking thoughts.
- C. The patient will avoid situations that cause anxiety.
- D. The patient will take medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate long-term goal for managing generalized anxiety disorder is for the patient to recognize and modify anxiety-provoking thoughts. By addressing and modifying these thoughts, the patient can develop coping mechanisms and strategies to manage their anxiety more effectively in the long term. Choices A and C are not ideal long-term goals as complete elimination of anxiety episodes or avoidance of anxiety-provoking situations may not be realistic or sustainable. Choice D focuses solely on medication adherence, which is important but does not address the core cognitive-behavioral aspects of managing anxiety in GAD.
3. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert’s early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:
- A. Favorable with medication
- B. In the relapse stage
- C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
- D. To have a less positive outcome
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Individuals with an early and slow onset of schizophrenia typically have a less positive outcome or prognosis. This is because early onset schizophrenia is often associated with a more severe form of the illness and can lead to greater functional impairment in various aspects of life, including academic and social functioning. Therefore, the prognosis for Gilbert, given his presentation and age of onset, would be considered to have a less positive outcome.
4. What is the most effective initial intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?
- A. Encourage the patient to discuss their feelings.
- B. Provide a quiet environment and stay with the patient.
- C. Administer prescribed medication immediately.
- D. Teach the patient relaxation techniques.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a panic attack, the most effective initial intervention is to provide a quiet environment and stay with the patient. This approach can help the patient feel safe and supported, which may help reduce the intensity and duration of the panic attack. Encouraging the patient to discuss their feelings may not be helpful during the acute phase of a panic attack as it can be overwhelming. Administering prescribed medication immediately is not typically the first-line intervention for panic attacks. Teaching relaxation techniques is beneficial in the long term but may not be the most effective immediate intervention during a panic attack.
5. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, ‘You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'
- A. A higher dosage
- B. Once-a-week dosing
- C. A lower dosage
- D. A different drug
Correct answer: C
Rationale: As the patient transitions to maintenance therapy, the typical approach involves decreasing the dosage to a lower level. This adjustment is made to find the minimum effective dose needed for symptom control while reducing the potential side effects associated with long-term use. Choosing a higher dosage (A) would not align with the goal of maintenance therapy, as it may increase the risk of adverse effects. Once-a-week dosing (B) is not a common adjustment for lithium, which is usually prescribed daily for bipolar disorder. Switching to a different drug (D) is typically considered if the current medication is ineffective or intolerable, not as a routine step in transitioning to maintenance therapy.
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