Nursing Elites

1. A client who is Rh-negative is being taught about Rh (D) immune globulin by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. If my partner is Rh-negative, I will not receive the shot.
• B. I will receive the shot after delivery if my baby is Rh-negative.
• C. I should not receive any immunizations for 3 months after the shot.
• D. This shot may be given after birth to protect future pregnancies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because it reflects an understanding of Rh immune globulin administration. Rh immune globulin is given after delivery to prevent sensitization in future pregnancies, particularly if the baby is Rh-positive. Choice A is incorrect because Rh-negative partners do not affect the need for Rh immune globulin. Choice B is incorrect as Rh immune globulin is given if the baby is Rh-positive, not Rh-negative. Choice C is incorrect; there is no requirement to avoid immunizations after receiving Rh immune globulin.

2. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. PT and INR
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

3. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Perform fundal massage
• B. Administer oxytocin IV
• C. Check vital signs
• D. Encourage the client to void

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.

4. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?

• A. A sandwich and milkshake
• B. Rice with black beans
• C. Cottage cheese and tuna lettuce
• D. Three-egg omelet with low-sodium ham

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash and has a minor traumatic brain injury (TBI). What finding should the nurse recognize as a complication and report to the provider?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Vomiting
• C. Drainage from the ear
• D. Unequal pupils

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Unequal pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or worsening brain injury, indicating a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Hypertension, vomiting, and drainage from the ear are not typically associated with minor traumatic brain injury complications; therefore, they are not the priority findings to report to the provider.

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