Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) about dietary modifications. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase fiber intake to 35 grams per day
• B. Avoid dairy products
• C. Eat small, frequent meals
• D. Avoid fruits and vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Eat small, frequent meals.' Eating small, frequent meals helps manage IBS symptoms by avoiding overloading the digestive system. Choice A is incorrect because increasing fiber intake may worsen symptoms in some individuals with IBS. Choice B is not a blanket recommendation for all IBS patients; some may tolerate dairy products well. Choice D is incorrect as fruits and vegetables are important sources of nutrients and should not be completely avoided unless specific triggers are identified.

2. A client with an NG tube is reporting nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Increase the suction pressure
• B. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water
• C. Turn the client onto their left side
• D. Replace the NG tube with a new one

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with an NG tube experiencing nausea and decreased gastric secretions is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water. This helps alleviate blockages and can improve the client's symptoms. Increasing the suction pressure (Choice A) may exacerbate the issue and cause further discomfort. Turning the client onto their left side (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing the reported symptoms. Replacing the NG tube with a new one (Choice D) should be considered only after attempting initial interventions like irrigation.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
• B. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?

• A. Monitor urine output and administer diuretics
• B. Administer IV fluids and restrict potassium intake
• C. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide dietary education
• D. Administer potassium and restrict fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.

5. Which of the following is an early indicator that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Irritability
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Irritability is an early indicator that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy because it can signal discomfort or difficulty breathing due to mucus accumulation, prompting the need for suctioning to clear the airway. Bradycardia (Choice A) and hypotension (Choice B) are not typically early indicators of the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy. Confusion (Choice D) is also not a direct early indicator of the need for suctioning in this context.

Similar Questions