Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
• B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
• C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
• D. HbA1c level less than 7%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with sepsis?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics
• B. Monitor vital signs
• C. Administer fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Managing a patient with sepsis requires a multi-faceted approach. Administering IV antibiotics is crucial to combat the underlying infection. Monitoring vital signs such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and temperature helps assess the patient's response to treatment and identify any deterioration. Administering fluids is essential to maintain adequate blood pressure and organ perfusion. Therefore, all the options are integral components of sepsis management, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all essential in the comprehensive care of a patient with sepsis. Omitting any of these aspects can lead to suboptimal outcomes, as each plays a critical role in addressing different aspects of sepsis management.

3. What are the signs and symptoms of fluid overload?

• A. Edema, shortness of breath, weight gain
• B. High blood pressure and jugular venous distention
• C. Low blood pressure and cyanosis
• D. Tachycardia and dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms of fluid overload include edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain. Edema is the abnormal accumulation of fluid causing swelling, shortness of breath can occur due to fluid accumulating in the lungs, and weight gain is often seen as a result of excess fluid retention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because high blood pressure and jugular venous distention are more indicative of conditions like heart failure, while low blood pressure and cyanosis are seen in conditions like shock or poor perfusion. Tachycardia and dizziness are not typical signs of fluid overload.

4. A client with an acute myocardial infarction is concerned about extreme fatigue. What is the best strategy to promote independence in self-care?

• A. Instruct the client to limit all activity until fully rested
• B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with rest periods
• C. Assign assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks
• D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with rest periods is the best strategy to promote independence in self-care for a client with acute myocardial infarction. This approach allows the client to regain independence while considering the need for rest to prevent overexertion. Instructing the client to limit all activity until fully rested (Choice A) may hinder independence by promoting inactivity. Assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks (Choice C) does not promote the client's independence. Asking the client's family to assist with self-care (Choice D) may not foster the client's self-reliance and may not always be feasible.

5. When receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients, which time-management strategy should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Prepare a priority list of client needs for the shift
• B. Complete less time-consuming tasks first
• C. Handle urgent client needs at the end of the shift
• D. Work on each client as they are seen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Preparing a priority list of client needs for the shift is the most effective time-management strategy for a nurse receiving change-of-shift report. This approach helps the nurse identify and address the most urgent client needs first, ensuring efficient use of time. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on less time-consuming tasks first may result in crucial tasks being delayed. Choice C is incorrect as urgent client needs should be handled promptly, not postponed until the end of the shift. Choice D is inefficient as it does not prioritize tasks based on urgency, potentially leading to delays in addressing critical client needs.

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