Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new diagnosis of osteoarthritis and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid foods that are high in potassium.
• C. Increase your intake of vitamin D-rich foods.
• D. Avoid foods that are high in sodium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching is to increase the intake of vitamin D-rich foods. Vitamin D helps improve calcium absorption, which is beneficial for bone health and may help alleviate symptoms of osteoarthritis. Option A is incorrect because while calcium is important for bone health, the focus should be on vitamin D for calcium absorption. Option B is incorrect as potassium is generally not restricted in osteoarthritis. Option D is also incorrect as sodium restriction is more relevant for conditions like hypertension or heart failure, not specifically for osteoarthritis.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You can still eat sugar, but you must count it in your carbohydrate count for the day.
• B. You need to avoid all forms of sugar to keep your blood glucose levels under control.
• C. You can eat unlimited amounts of proteins and fats since they do not affect blood glucose levels.
• D. You will need to take an oral hypoglycemic agent every day to manage your blood glucose levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement to include in teaching a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is that they can still eat sugar, but they must count it in their carbohydrate intake for the day. This is important because clients with type 1 diabetes need to manage their blood glucose levels by calculating their carbohydrate intake, including sugars. Choice B is incorrect because total avoidance of sugar is not necessary, but monitoring and including it in the carbohydrate count is essential. Choice C is incorrect as proteins and fats can also affect blood glucose levels and should be consumed in moderation. Choice D is incorrect since oral hypoglycemic agents are not used in type 1 diabetes mellitus, as insulin replacement therapy is the mainstay of treatment.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intradermal injection. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

• A. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• B. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
• C. Use a 1-inch needle.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering an intradermal injection, a tuberculin syringe is the appropriate choice due to its small size and precise measurement markings, which are essential for accurately delivering the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. Using a 1-inch needle (choice C) is more common for subcutaneous injections, while inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (choice B) is typical for intramuscular injections. Aspirating before injecting (choice D) is not necessary for intradermal injections, as the goal is to deliver the medication into the dermis rather than a blood vessel.

4. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent respiratory complications?

• A. Instruct the client to exhale into an incentive spirometer
• B. Reposition the client every 8 hours
• C. Assist the client with early ambulation
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client with early ambulation is crucial in preventing respiratory complications after abdominal surgery. Early ambulation helps to prevent conditions like atelectasis and pneumonia by promoting lung expansion and preventing pooling of respiratory secretions. It also aids in improving circulation, reducing the risk of deep vein thrombosis, and enhancing overall recovery. Instructing the client to exhale into an incentive spirometer (Choice A) is beneficial for lung expansion but is more focused on respiratory therapy rather than preventing complications. Repositioning the client every 8 hours (Choice B) is important for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing respiratory complications. Maintaining the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours (Choice D) can lead to complications such as atelectasis, pneumonia, and deep vein thrombosis due to decreased lung expansion and mobility.

5. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
• B. Flaccid neck muscles.
• C. Petechial rash.
• D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

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