ATI LPN
LPN Nursing Fundamentals
1. A client has a new diagnosis of hyperlipidemia and is receiving teaching from a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should increase your intake of trans fats.
- B. You should decrease your intake of fiber-rich foods.
- C. You should avoid foods that are high in cholesterol.
- D. You should increase your intake of high-fat foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in teaching the client with hyperlipidemia is to avoid foods that are high in cholesterol. Foods high in cholesterol, like those high in saturated and trans fats, can contribute to elevated lipid levels and increase cardiovascular risk. Decreasing intake of these foods can help improve lipid profiles and reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing intake of trans fats, decreasing fiber-rich foods, and increasing intake of high-fat foods can exacerbate hyperlipidemia and worsen the lipid profile.
2. When should discharge planning begin for a client admitted to a long-term care facility for rehabilitation after a total hip arthroplasty?
- A. One week prior to the client's discharge
- B. Upon the client's admission to the care facility
- C. Once the discharge date is identified
- D. When the client addresses the topic with the nurse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Discharge planning should begin upon the client's admission to the care facility. This early start allows the healthcare team to conduct assessments, set goals, and coordinate services for a smooth transition back home or to the community. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely arrangements, leading to optimal outcomes and continuity of care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until one week before discharge, after the discharge date is identified, or until the client brings up the topic may lead to rushed decision-making, inadequate arrangements, and a less effective transition process.
3. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Increased skin turgor
- C. Dark-colored urine
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.
4. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Tremors
- B. Urine retention
- C. Kussmaul respirations
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decreased creatinine
- C. Increased potassium
- D. Increased calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.
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