Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
• B. Place the newborn in a prone position
• C. Suction the newborn's airway
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of respiratory distress, the nurse should first suction the newborn's airway to clear any obstructions. This is a priority intervention as it helps ensure the airway is patent and allows for effective breathing. Administering oxygen, placing the newborn in a prone position, and notifying the healthcare provider are all important actions but should come after ensuring the airway is clear. Administering oxygen may not be effective if the airway is obstructed. Placing the newborn in a prone position can worsen respiratory distress in infants. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate intervention to clear the airway takes precedence in this situation.

2. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

3. A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. A client who has massive head trauma
• B. A client who has full-thickness burns to the face and trunk
• C. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
• D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a mass casualty situation, the nurse should prioritize the client with indications of hypovolemic shock. Hypovolemic shock is an immediate life-threatening condition resulting from severe blood loss, which can lead to organ failure and death. Prompt identification and treatment of hypovolemic shock are crucial to prevent further deterioration. While clients with massive head trauma, full-thickness burns, and open fractures require urgent care, hypovolemic shock takes precedence due to its rapid progression to a critical state.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client. Which of the following findings indicates a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering?

• A. The TPN solution has an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top of the solution.
• B. The TPN solution contains added electrolytes, vitamins, and trace elements.
• C. The bag of TPN was prepared by the pharmacy 12 hours prior.
• D. The bag of TPN is labeled with the client's name, medical record number, and prescription.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A TPN solution with an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top indicates that the solution is 'cracked' and should not be used as it may have separated or deteriorated. This finding suggests a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering. Options B, C, and D are normal aspects of TPN administration. Option B confirms the presence of essential components in the TPN solution, option C provides information about the preparation time, and option D ensures proper identification and matching of the TPN with the correct client.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

• A. Low potassium diet
• B. High fiber diet
• C. Low fat diet
• D. Low sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.

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